2013年9月30日星期一

Le meilleur matériel de formation examen EXIN EX0-112

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Code d'Examen: EX0-112
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (Business Information Management Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which role does business information management play regarding the realization of the
information provisioning?
A. the role of vendor of IT-services
B. the role of purchaser of IT-services
C. the role of supplier of IT-services
Answer: B

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NO.3 The process cluster Use management signals disruptions to the information provisioning, which are
experienced in the business process. Which process cluster will be the first to act on these signals?
A. Functionality management cluster
B. Information strategy cluster
C. Connecting processes (operational)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which process determines which information provisioning is required, including the
priorities?
A. Demand management
B. End user support
C. Information lifecycle management
Answer: A

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NO.5 Two reports that have been produced in the nightly batch processing have been damaged during
printing. This has been noticed by Operational supplier management. In which process will the end users
be informed that the reports have been damaged?
A. Business data management
B. End user support
C. Operational supplier management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which activity belongs to the process End user support?
A. dealing with calls about errors in the functionality
B. monitoring the usage of the information systems
C. adding new end users to a table
Answer: A

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NO.7 What do frameworks like BiSL contribute to the implementation of effective business
information management?
A. structured activities of business information management
B. much improved quality of the IT-services
C. a uniformly implemented business information management for each organization
Answer: A

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NO.8 The cluster Use management provides information about the reliability of the business data. For which
process is this input?
A. Business data management
B. Demand management
C. Contract management
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is not an activity of Contract management.?
A. agreeing on how the information manager is to communicate with the IT director
B. changing the time of delivery of a change
C. monitoring whether the supplied IT-services correspond to the agreed services
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which activities are not in a transition plan?
A. the activities that are required for a successful preparation of the implementation
B. the generic activities that have to be performed at all locations where the system is
implemented
C. the specific activities that have to be performed at a specific location during transition
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which process produces an end user training for a new release of an application?
A. Transition
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which process deals with defining interfaces in the area of information provisioning between various
organizations?
A. Information coordination
B. Information lifecycle management
C. Information portfolio management
D. Strategic information partner management
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is a result of the process Specify information requirement?
A. a functional design
B. a list of functional and non-functional demands
C. an approved test strategy
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a key message of BiSL?
A. After outsourcing of IT-activities, professional business information management
becomes less important.
B. The importance of having good business information management increases in proportion to the
importance of the information provisioning for the organization.
C. Integration and alignment of the operational IT-management processes with the policy is a
consequence of an effective and efficient information provisioning.
Answer: B

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Dernières EXIN ITIL-F examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ITIL-F
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 215 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A.Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B.Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C.Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D.Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A.Change proposal
B.Change policy
C.Service request
D.Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A.Service level management
B.IT operations management
C.Capacity management
D.Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A.Allows higher volumes of successful change
B.Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C.Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D.Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.5 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A.Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B.Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C.Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D.Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.6 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?
A.People, process, partners, performance
B.Performance, process, products, plans
C.People, process, products, partners
D.People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A.To identify patterns of business activity
B.To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C.To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D.To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.8 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A.Service design: Design the processes
B.Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A.Process owner
B.Change manager
C.Service manager
D.Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A.Incident and financial management
B.Change and release and deployment management
C.Incident and event management
D.Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 2B0-202
Nom d'Examen: Enterasys Networks (ES NetSight Atlas)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions can Atlas Console initiate when certain alarms, events or
traps occur on the network?
A. Send an e-mail notification and then shut down Atlas Console
B. Send an e-mail notification or run a program
C. Write the event log to an HTML file for web-based viewing
D. Run a program or shut down Atlas Console
E. A and C only
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which RMON groups are accessible from the Device Manager?
A. Alarm and Event
B. Host and Matrix
C. Statistics and History
D. Filter and Capture
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following configuration files can you view while comparing archives in
Inventory Manager?
A. All archived configuration files
B. Only files in which a difference in configurations is found
C. All archived database files
D. A and C
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Firmware Upgrade Wizard allows you to enter a reset delay time for devices that
support timed reset. How can you reset devices that do not support timed reset?
A. You cannot reset devices that do not support timed reset.
B. After selecting the devices in the table, click Start to initiate manual resets.
C. It is necessary to walk to the device to initiate a reset.
D. After closing the Firmware Upgrade Wizard, you open the Manual Device Reset
Wizard.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What service must be running to save a configuration?
A. TFTP
B. BOOTP
C. SNMP trapd
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 With SNMPv3, the message is encrypted
A. to prevent disclosure of sensitive information while en route
B. to make sure the user has permission to access the device
C. to verify the message was not modified en route
D. to read or to modify subsets of the target data
E. Both A and C
Answer: A

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NO.7 Device Manager provides all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Graphic representation of a device
B. Configuration file upload/download
C. System level configuration
D. Broadcast Suppression configuration
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Goto symbol is used as a navigational tool to jump to another map.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the context of Policy Manager, a Role is a
A. Feature set that is assigned after authentication exchange and the port is available
B. Feature used to assign access control and/or class of service to network traffic based
on its OSI layer
C. Feature used to enforce the default role on a port
D. Feature used to combine classification rules to implement permission and denial to
network resources
Answer: A

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NO.10 What benefits are gained with SNMPv3?
A. Better error codes
B. Encrypted messages
C. Fast table retrieval
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-616
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.5 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.7 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.8 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.10 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.15 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.16 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

EMC   E20-616   E20-616 examen

NO.17 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.20 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-485
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management Application Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32) repeating
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and two DB views
D. two DB tables and four DB views
Answer: D

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NO.2 A pharmaceutical company wants to implement a records management program that is cost effective.
The company needs a solution that provides the following capabilities:
- ability to classify records
- ability to apply retention on records
- ability to dispose records
- ability to hold records from disposition
Which Documentum product provides these capabilities and minimizes licensing costs?
A. Records Manager Administrator (RMA)
B. Records Manager (RM)
C. Retention Policy Services (RPS)
D. Physical Records Manager (PRM)
Answer: C

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NO.3 In addition to Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM) and Records Manager (RM), which products
contain a user interface and are part of the compliance and archiving products suite offered by
Documentum?
A. only Retention Policy Services (RPS)
B. Retention Policy Services (RPS) and Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
C. Content Storage Services (CSS)
D. only Enterprise Content Services (ECS)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has a remote office where there is limited IT support to maintain a Documentum
installation. There is a Wide Area Network with low bandwidth and high latency between the primary and
the remote sites.
Which solution best provides the user with the ability to read and write frequently used content at the
remote location with minimal IT support?
A. Content Server with Distributed Storage at the remote location
B. Webtop with remote users added to the express_user role
C. Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS) at the remote location
D. File Share Services (FSS) at the remote location
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-485   certification E20-485

NO.5 You have integrated Documentum Repository with Microsoft Exchange Server. You have been asked to
reduce storage costs by using content compression and de-duplication.
Which EMC solution meets these requirements?
A. Content Services for EMC Centera and Content Storage Service (CSS)
B. Content Storage Service (CSS) and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Documentum Client for Outlook (DCO) and Content Services for EMC Centera
D. High Volume Server and Archive Services for Email
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Documentum customer is using Webtop to manage their documents. They want to provide read
access to these documents for their 2000 customers located globally. The customer has already
purchased Web Content Management (WCM) and does not want to incur any additional cost.
How can the customer meet these requirements with minimal effort?
A. create user accounts for their clients in the repository and expose Webtop outside the firewall with
"read" permission on the documents for the clients
B. use WebPublisher and Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide
their clients access to the website
C. use Site Caching Services (SCS) to publish the documents to a website and provide their clients
access to the website
D. create a customization to run a nightly job to extract documents out of the repository and copy them to
a website, and provide their clients access to the website
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company has a requirement to develop an application to manage a group of documents in a folder
through a business process. As the folder progresses, the different document types in that folder change
security based on status, their type, as well as the values of different attributes for those different types.
They are deciding whether to use Documentum workflow or an external workflow system.
Which type of configuration or customization will support the functionality without committing to using
Documentum versus a third-party workflow tool?
A. policy configuration only
B. policy configuration plus customization
C. process configuration only
D. process configuration plus customization
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-485   E20-485   E20-485

NO.8 A customer needs to secure and preserve the authenticity of PDF documents by applying an
electronic signature. All the PDF documents need to be identified by a unique reference corresponding to
their department and function, and the reference must be system-generated. A notification system is
required to alert the consumer of the documents for them to read and agree upon. If the consumer rejects
the document, they should be able to select the appropriate reason for rejection.
Which product will implement the above functionality?
A. Records Manager (RM)
B. TaskSpace and Adobe Forms
C. Documentum Compliance Manager (DCM)
D. Information Rights Manager (IRM)
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company requires that when an article document is saved it should inherit certain attributes from the
folder it is stored into.
How should you design this solution?
A. create a custom TBO that overrides the doSave method of the folder object, so that when documents
are saved in it, their attributes are updated with the folder's attributes
B. create a relation between the folder and the document type with cascade update property set and add
the attributes to be inherited
C. create a Smart Container for the folder with a member relationship for the document and add the
attributes to be inherited
D. create a method that is scheduled as a job to update newly saved article documents.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer wants to maintain the annual financial reports using a Documentum Content Management
System. Different parts of the document must be authored and reviewed by different people and individual
parts of the document must be combined in a particular order to form the final PDF document.
What is useful for implementing the solution?
A. PDF Annotations Services and relationship objects
B. Smart Containers and Content Transformation Services (CTS)
C. Virtual Document and Advanced Document Transformation Services (ADTS)
D. XML applications and Media Transformation Services (MTS)
Answer: C

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NO.11 An engineer designs the data model that is shown for a shipping application in a repository that does
not have fulltext search enabled.
It is required that a query returns all shipping_transaction documents, shipped on a given shipping_date,
with a particular shipping_code.
Querying with either shipping_code or shipping_date alone would return hundreds of thousands of
objects. Querying on both shipping_date and shipping_code, returns a selective set of objects.
Given the example query:
select r_object_id, customer_id, shipping_date
from shipping_transaction
where na_specific_data.shipping_code=4267.86
and shipping_date = date('11/25/2008')
Which statement is true about use of aspects in this scenario?
A. It will cause a DQL parser error, because it is NOT possible to include both aspect and standard
attributes within the same query.
B. It will improve query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
C. It will degrade query response time, because a database index on the combination of attributes that
make the query selective CANNOT be created.
D. It will degrade query response time, because the aspect metadata is only applied to some
shipping_transaction documents.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A new Documentum customer without any experience with Content Management systems has decided
to purchase Documentum for its out-of-the-box functionality. They have general requirements for their
users to have web access to basic content storage, library services, full-text search, and workflow.
Besides Content Server and Index Server, at a minimum, which solution would meet this customer's
requirements?
A. Webtop only
B. Webtop and Process Suite
C. Process Suite only
D. TaskSpace and Process Suite
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with a series of web services built for
integration with existing financial and other enterprise systems. They want to add Documentum as their
Enterprise Content Management System. They prefer to minimize the number of necessary user
interfaces and want to make it so users ultimately do not need a Documentum interface. You recommend
a phased approach to integration with some initial user interface.
Which options and products meet the customer's needs?
A. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and High
Volume Server (HVS)
B. Phase 1 Content Server and High Volume Server (HVS) Phase 2 Documentum Foundation
Classes/Business Objects Foundation and Business Process Services (BPS)
C. Phase 1 Content Server and Webtop Phase 2 Documentum Foundation Services (DFS) and
TaskSpace
D. Phase 1 Content Server and Business Process Services (BPS) Phase 2 TaskSpace and Process
Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company that develops highly-structured content via XML authoring has decided to use
Documentum for its XML chunking capabilities. They are also looking to reduce the problems they have
been experiencing with their existing model of authoring via a client side application and storing in a
centralized store. They understand that some level of customization or specialized configuration is
required.
Which action would use the least custom code in favor of configuration?
A. develop a set of forms using Forms Builder for users to author with a configured XML application for
chunking
B. develop a set of extended WebPublisher components for users to author with a configured XML store
for chunking
C. develop a set of extended Webtop components for users to author with a configured XML application
for chunking
D. develop a set of extended Digital Asset Manager (DAM) components for users to author with a
configured XML application for chunking
Answer: A

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NO.15 An insurance company has standardized the client desktop on the Microsoft Office platform. The
company designed a claim Documentum workflow on Microsoft Word documents. The workflow needs to
be manually initiated by the user. Users would prefer a more integrated solution so that they do not need
to launch multiple applications to start a workflow.
Which product meets these requirements?
A. Webtop
B. Application Connectors
C. Process Integrator
D. Web Development Kit (WDK) applications
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are designing the data model for a retailer's catalog application. A description of all products for
sale will be stored in the Documentum repository. There are thousands of different types of products.
Each product may have a unique set of attributes. Users should be able to add or remove attributes from
a product definition at runtime.
Which approach should you use to provide the required flexibility in data types, and also provide good
query performance when searching for product information?
A. You create a type called product that contains all common attributes and attach and detach attribute
aspects as required. For searching, you use the TRY_FTDQL_FIRST DQL hint.
B. You use XML content stored in an XML store, add and remove attributes by modifying the XML content,
and use IDfXQuery to search for product information.
C. You use lightweight objects with the parent object containing common attribute values. Parent objects
are created for each product description. For searching, you use NOFTDQL queries.
D. You create a standard object type hierarchy and issue alter type statements, as needed, to modify
types at runtime. For searching, you use FTDQL queries.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which EMC product is used to convert the text print stream into PDF format, extract the metadata, and
ingest the content into Documentum Repository?
A. Document Transformation Services
B. Import Manager
C. Archive Services Reports (ASR)
D. Bulk Loader
Answer: C

EMC   E20-485   E20-485 examen

NO.18 An Enterprise Architect (EA) who has no knowledge on Documentum proposes a distributed
architecture for a Document and Process Management solution. The architect suggests creating web
services using SOAP 1.2 and JAX-WS, a Data Access Layer with POJO objects using Documentum
Foundation Classes (DFC) and Documentum Repository. The EA believes that this architecture will yield
better performance for large content transfer, and the ability to replace Documentum with any Content
Management Solution (CMS) without much impact on the system.
As a Documentum application architect, you need to validate and provide input on this architecture. You
must consider that the system must have reusable components and reduce development time.
What should you do?
A. approve the proposed architecture because the EA has overall knowledge about the enterprise
B. recommend building a custom solution with DFC and no web services, because DFC will give much
better performance
C. recommend using DFS and extending it as needed
D. recommend building web services using the REST framework and DFC to access the Documentum
Repository
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-485   E20-485 examen   E20-485

NO.19 A law firm that handles a large volume of cases requires a system that meets the following
requirements:
-provides a central location to create, store and manage documents
-tracks discussions on a case and advice given
-protects the content of files sent to co-counsels and clients
Which solution meets the law firm's requirements?
A. Knowledge Worker solution and Information Rights Manager (IRM) Services
B. Transactional Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
C. Interactive Content Management solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
D. Knowledge Worker solution and Trusted Content Services (TCS)
Answer: A

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NO.20 A financial institution requests an SOA-enabled account opening process solution and has the
following requirements:
-robust workflow capability with support for high-fidelity forms
-simple and configurable transaction centric interface
-seamless integration with their Global Account Management System
Which solution meets the customer's requirements while minimizing the development effort?
A. TaskSpace, Process Suite, and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
B. Webtop, Adobe Forms Designer, and Process Suite
C. a custom solution with SOA -enabled Business Process Manager (BPM)
D. eRoom, Process Suite and Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
Answer: A

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NO.21 You create a new custom type with the following attributes:
c_product string(32)
c_platform string(32)
What is created in the database (DB)?
A. a single DB table only
B. two DB tables only
C. a single DB table and four DB views
D. two DB tables and two DB views
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-485   E20-485   certification E20-485   E20-485

NO.22 A company has an existing website and web publishing system. They are expanding the authoring of
content to non-web development staff and want to provide a simple interface where users can author
content for both internal and external websites. They will need considerable flexibility in the development
of the authoring interface for varied types of content but would prefer not to customize. The system should
also be able to share that content with their existing web content management system.
Besides WebPublisher, which products include a user interface that can be configured and used for
web-ready content authoring?
A. Webtop and Forms Builder (FB)
B. Webtop and Process Builder (PB)
C. TaskSpace and Workflow Manager
D. Digital Asset Manager (DAM) and Process Builder (PB)
Answer: A

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NO.23 You are designing a Documentum application for managing project documents. When a new project is
initiated, the system should automatically create a folder for the project and populate it with 5 sub-folders
for the project phases and the appropriate document templates within each phase folder
Which approach meets these requirements with minimal effort?
A. construct a Smart Container with folders and document templates
B. define a relationship object for folders and document templates
C. create a Virtual Document for document templates and relationship for folders
D. customize Webtop to set up project folder structure
Answer: A

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NO.24 The type hierarchy that is shown has only custom attributes displayed.
The following DQL statement is executed:
select
r_object_id
, object_name
, c_channel
from
c_product
where
datediff(week, r_creation_date, date(today)) <= 1
How many table joins would the query cause in the database when executed as a superuser?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.25 A customer wants to reduce storage cost. The company's infrastructure architect advises that tiered
storage be implemented and certain file sizes and formats be stored in the lowest tier. The company has
enterprise licenses for all Documentum products and wants to know how the architect's recommendation
can be implemented in Documentum.
Which policies can be used for this implementation?
A. containment policies
B. assignment policies
C. retention policies
D. naming policies
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-485   E20-485   E20-485   certification E20-485

NO.26 You are building a solution to automate a Grants Management Process. Your workflow involves
searching documents in an external non-Documentum Repository. You also need to generate a graphical
report on auto activities.
Which EMC product combination achieves this?
A. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), TaskSpace
B. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor(BAM), Webtop
C. Process Builder (PB), Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
D. Workflow Manager, Business Activity Monitor (BAM), Enterprise Content Integration Services (ECIS)
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-485   E20-485

NO.27 A customer needs a solution to address a heavy volume case management requirement. All of the
content attached to the cases are media files (audio/video). The key requirements are to have a simple
interface focusing on core functionality, which is case processing. The customer also needs the ability for
the case reviewer to see all information in a single screen, including the file attached to the case.
In addition to Process Suite, which solution would you recommend?
A. TaskSpace and Document Image Services
B. Digital Asset Manager (DAM)
C. customized TaskSpace
D. custom interface
Answer: C

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NO.28 In addition to Digital Asset Manager (DAM), which client products are part of the Interactive Content
Management Solution?
A. Web Publisher (WP), File Share Services (FSS)
B. Webtop, File Share Services (FSS)
C. Webtop, TaskSpace
D. TaskSpace, File Share Services (FSS)
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E20-485   E20-485   E20-485   E20-485

NO.29 In addition to Content Server, which server products are typically used for Interactive Content
Management Solutions?
A. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Enterprise Content Integration Services
(ECIS)
B. Document Transformation Services (DTS), Records Manager (RM)
C. Media Transformation Services (MTS), Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)
D. XML Transformation Services (XTS), Thumbnail Server, Site Caching Services (SCS)
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-485   E20-485   E20-485 examen

NO.30 A customer is planning to build a WebPublisher template with product name and product description
elements. When a user enters the values for the product name and product description fields in the
content, the product name value from the content needs to be copied to the keyword attribute.
Which solution meets this requirement with minimal effort?
A. customize WebPublisher WDK component to update attribute values upon saving of documents
B. create a TBO to update attribute values upon saving of documents
C. create an XML application to update attribute values from document content
D. create a custom SBO application and invoke it on document save.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-591
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Solutions Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to start performing client backups to a deduplication
node. What is a requirement when scheduling these backups using NetWorker?
A. First backup must be a full backup
B. Database backups must be full backups
C. All backups must be full backups
D. Schedule must not include any incremental backups
Answer: A

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NO.2 An EMC NetWorker customer needs to improve the RTO for all backups retained onsite. Most
of the backup jobs consist of images and other scientific data. The customer requires daily tape out
for long-term offsite retention. Which product addresses these challenges?
A. EMC Disk Library
B. NetWorker deduplication node
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Avamar node is dedicated to providing internal Avamar server processes and services?
A. Spare
B. Storage
C. Utility
D. Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.4 An EMC customer has an EMC NetWorker server running on a Microsoft Windows host and
two storage nodes running on Solaris hosts. Data Protection Advisor (DPA) will be installed on a
separate Windows host. The customer requires that system performance information be collected
from the backup server and all storage nodes.
A Collector will be installed on the DPA server by default. At a minimum, how many additional
Collectors need to be deployed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which EMC NetWorker feature is used to perform a backup based on an event?
A. Application modules
B. Directives
C. Scheduled backups
D. Probe-based backups
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are asked to propose a serverless backup solution for the following environment:
Which EMC product would you recommend to support this environment?
A. RecoverPoint
B. Avamar
C. Data Domain
D. NetWorker
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator wants to back up an EMC Celerra with Avamar using a single NDMP
accelerator node. Based on EMC best practices, what is the maximum number of files that can be
backed up per backup job?
A. 5 million
B. 10 million
C. 15 million
D. 20 million
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where is deduplicated data stored on a Data Domain system?
A. SATA drives
B. NVRAM
C. SCSI drives
D. PATA drives
Answer: A

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NO.9 The backup window of a customer using tape as a target for the current backup solution has
increased over the allowed time. The customer needs to reduce the backup window by adding an
intermediary process to a faster device before going to tape. What is that process?
A. Archiving
B. Rotation
C. Consolidation
D. Staging
Answer: B

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NO.10 An EMC NetWorker customer has added the following application to their environment:
What is a requirement to perform serverless backups?
A. NetWorker storage node software needs to be installed on the Exchange server
B. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications needs to be installed on the proxy server
C. NetWorker Module for Exchange and NetWorker VSS Client for Microsoft Windows
D. NetWorker Module for Exchange needs to be installed on the NetWorker server
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which technology is used in an EMC Disk Library to provide tolerance against a double drive
failure?
A. RAIN
B. RAID 6
C. Remote Copy
D. Active Engine Failover
Answer: B

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NO.12 An Avamar customer has just deployed a VMware environment. The customer wants to
ensure they receive the highest level of deduplication within the environment. Which type of
backup should be performed?
A. Guest
B. VCB proxy host
C. VADP
D. ESX console
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-598
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

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NO.1 In an EMC Avamar backup operation, which process always produces identical chunk results given the
same data?
A. Sticky-byte factoring
B. Compression
C. File caching
D. Hashing
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are three types of EMC Avamar hashes?
A. Composite, Root, and Atomic
B. Root, Atomic, and Index
C. Composite, Atomic, and Stripe
D. Root, Atomic, and Parity
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which processes are started automatically during an EMC Avamar Windows client installation?
A. avagent and avscc only
B. avtar and avagent only
C. avtar, avagent, and avscc
D. avscc and avtar only
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a characteristic of variable block deduplication?
A. Better granularity and more efficiency
B. Commonly provided in snapshot technologies
C. Small changes require all segments to change
D. Most common deduplication method
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A. Atomic
B. Root
C. Composite
D. Metadata
Answer: A

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NO.6 For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file
cache.?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 40
D. 44
Answer: D

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NO.7 A storage node in a multi-node Avamar server has failed and a replacement node has been added to
the grid. What is used to reconstruct the data on the new node?
A. RAIN
B. RAID
C. Checkpoint
D. Replication
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is unable to connect to their EMC Avamar server when using the Avamar Administrator
GUI. If default settings are being used, which port must be open for a successful connection?
A. 5555
B. 7778
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which interface is used to start Avamar Client Manager?
A. Enterprise Manager
B. Command Line
C. cron job
D. Avamar Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which tool is used to move a client to a new domain in EMC Avamar 6.0?
A. Client Manager
B. Activation Manager
C. Enterprise Manager
D. Installation Manager
Answer: A

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NO.11 On an EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks?
A. *.dat
B. *.usd
C. *.chd
D. *.cdt
Answer: A

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NO.12 Based on the exhibit, which type of backup configuration is represented?
A. Image Level Backup with VADP (vSphere)
B. VMware Guest Level Backup
C. VMware Consolidated Backup (VCB)
D. VMware Console Backup
Answer: A

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NO.13 The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This
results in the following:
-Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%-Four (4) that will compress at 23%-Two (2) chunks at 50%
compression
How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?
A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication
B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check
C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints
D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication
Answer: A

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NO.15 In EMC Avamar 6.0, which tool is used to completely move clients to a new Avamar server?
A. Client Manager
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Activation Manager
D. Avamar Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which port on the Avamar server does the client connect to when performing a backup with encryption
enabled?
A. 27000
B. 28001
C. 28002
D. 29000
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which four account management actions can be performed from the EMC Client Manager interface?
A. Move clients to a new server Retire clients Move clients to a new domain View management log
B. Move clients to a new domain Retire clients Modify client group associations Schedule backups
C. View management log Modify replication Retire clients Move clients to a new server
D. View management log Retire clients Delete clients Browse clients
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which time zone is used on EMC Avamar nodes?
A. Local time on the utility node; GMT/UTC on the storage nodes
B. GMT/UTC on the utility node; local time on the storage nodes
C. All node types use the local time
D. All nodes use GMT/UTC time
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which size Avamar Gen4 storage node is supported for a RAIN configuration?
A. 1.0 TB
B. 1.3 TB
C. 2.6 TB
D. 3.9 TB
Answer: D

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NO.20 How many simultaneous client connections per node will an EMC Avamar server support?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 18
D. 25
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-547
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators )
Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

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NO.1 At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data Protection
Advisor.?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Unisphere storage role will limit a user to the administration of the file system checkpoints, LUN
mirrors, and replication manager tasks?
A. Data recovery
B. Administration
C. Data protection
D. NAS administrator
Answer: C

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NO.4 In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
B. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
C. It relocates more active data from tier 1storage without users noticing the difference.
D. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
C. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on
D. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
Answer: B

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NO.6 What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured
B. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is
D. All clones will be fractured
Answer: B

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NO.7 What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as private
LUNs?
A. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
B. File System Wizard
C. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
D. Celera Setup Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Linux kernel supports dynamic LUN scanning?
A. 2.3
B. 2.4
C. 2.5
D. 2.6
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

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NO.11 After presenting a LUN to a Linux host, which utility is used to configure a partition?
A. fdisk
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. Unisphere Service Manager
D. Disk Management
Answer: A

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NO.12 What does the acronym "CHAP" refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.13 When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to
an active VNX Data Mover
How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity
Answer: A

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NO.14 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured cloned LUN?
A. The peer SP acquires the feature logs
B. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the feature logs
D. Neither the clone LUN nor the feature logs will be acquired by the peer SP
Answer: C

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NO.15 What happens when a new CFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check
boxes remain unchecked?
A. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CFS server
B. A global share Is created and served by the primary VDM
C. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover
D. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share
Answer: D

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NO.16 A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size value.
What will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system will not be extended
B. The extend size value cannot by less than the die system size
C. The file system is extended by the extend_size value
D. The file system is extended by five percent of its size
Answer: D

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NO.17 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a windows server 2003 host,
but the quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
C. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
Answer: A

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NO.18 How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the preferred method for partitioning VNX FC LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2008 R2
host?
A. Disk Management
B. fdisk
C. format
D. vtoc
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which failover mode must be configured to use vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
functionality?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D

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