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Code d'Examen: HP0-500
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 .Which resources could be used to help isolate correctable memory errors?
A. SSD and DAAD
B. ACU and SmartStart
C. Server Health Logs and Integrated Management Log
D. QRG (Quick Reference Guide) and Inspect
Answer: C

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NO.2 .A hard drive fails on a system with an on-line spare. When is it recommended that the failed drive be
replaced?
A. upon discovery of the failure
B. upon completion of rebuild of on-line spare
C. not needed, failed drive will perform self-repair
D. any time before rebuild of online spare is complete
Answer: B

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NO.3 .How is a redundant Xeon server PPM identified?
A. one processor installed
B. two processors installed
C. fully populated PPM circuit board
D. half populated PPM circuit board
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which component failure will cause a Compaq server to reset but not power up?
A. IMD
B. PPM
C. DIMM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.5 .Which Compaq server component is covered under prefailure warranty?
A. DIMM memory
A. hard disk controller
B. recovery server option
C. network interface controller
Answer: A

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NO.6 .Which step must be performed when upgrading a customer's ProLiant server from a Pentium II Xeon
to Pentium III Xeon processor?
A. Flash ROM before replacing processors.
B. Ensure all processors have the same frequency and cache size.
C. Mix cache sizes in pairs for sockets 1 and 3.
D. Upgrade terminator boards for all four sockets.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .What capability do fans have in some hot-pluggable power supplies?
A. variable RPM, depending on thermal sensor readings
B. hot plug fan replacement
C. dual-power inputs for redundancy
D. redundant power supply fans
Answer: A

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NO.8 .What do Compaq hot-pluggable power supplies have that traditional power supplies do not?
A. higher current
B. higher voltage
C. microcontroller Self-Test
D. power Monitor Port
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Which product reports prefailure on all Compaq SMART hard drives?
A. CIM
B. RBSU C. ACU D. SCU
Answer: A

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NO.10 .What is the available array space after grouping six 4GB hard drives using Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 12GB
B. 16GB
C. 20GB
D. 24GB
Answer: B

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NO.11 .What can Compaq Diagnostics reliably test?
A. Compaq Insight Manager (CIM) agents
B. system ROM BIOS compatibility
C. DAT tape drive read/write function
D. non-Compaq SCSI controller
Answer: C

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NO.12 .What is used to disable a Compaq server serial port?
A. Compaq Insight Manager
B. System Board Switch
C. System Configuration Utility
D. Nothing, as it is disabled by default
Answer: C

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NO.13 .On a ProLiant 450 MHz processor server, Level 2 cache is logging errors. Which item should be
replaced?
A. Cache Memory Stick
B. System I/O Board
C. CPU/Processor Module
D. Riser Card
Answer: C

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NO.14 .What action is recommended if the Server Health Driver consistently reports a correctable memory
error in the same location?
A. Run ERASE utility to clear the location.
B. Schedule downtime and replace memory.
C. This is normal and can be ignored.
D. Mark "repaired" in Insight Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .What is the likely cause of rack instability?
A. more than one component simultaneously extended
B. UPS installed at the bottom of the rack
C. side panels not installed
D. missing blanking panels
Answer: A

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NO.16 .What are the best sources for the latest versions of Rompaqs and Softpaqs? Select two.
A. Compaq ResourcePaq
B. SmartStart
C. HP/Compaq website
D. QuickFind2000
E. OS ServicePaq
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 .What is the first required action to safely remove an adapter from a Compaq PCI hot-pluggable slot?
A. Just remove the card.
B. Power down the slot to remove the card.
C. Power down the server to remove the card.
D. Install the new card in another slot.
Answer: B

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NO.18 .Which Compaq utility is used to configure Online Spare memory?
A. Rapid Raid Utility
B. Raid Builder for AMP
C. ROM-based Setup Utility
D. SmartStart
Answer: C

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NO.19 .Which network interface controller configuration can support redundant NICs?
A. one dual-port fast Ethernet network controller
B. one 16/4 token ring network controller connected to a managed hub
C. one fast Ethernet network controller connected to a second server
D. one fast Ethernet network controller connected to a router
Answer: A

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NO.20 .Which utility is assists in planning and configuring Compaq racks?
A. RackManager
B. RackAssistant
C. RackIntegrator
D. RackBuilder Pro
Answer: D

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NO.21 .After a field engineer adds a second array controller to the server, the operating system does not boot .
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect jumper settings
B. incorrect slot order
C. array controller boot order D. interrupt conflicts
Answer: C

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NO.22 .What enables remote server management and control regardless of the operating system or condition
of the server?
A. CIM (Compaq Insight Manager)
B. SCU (System Configuration Utility)
C. Remote Utilities (from system Diagnostics menu)
D. RILOE (Remote Insight Light Out Edition option)
Answer: D

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NO.23 .When servicing a customer's system, what is the proper sequence to remove power to the server and
any external storage subsystems?
A. external storage systems first, then server
B. server first, then the external storage systems
C. UPS, then the server
D. external storage first, then the UPS
Answer: B

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NO.24 .Where should the server Feature Board be installed in Compaq servers?
A. A designated slot
B. Any PCI 64-bit slot
C. Any extended slot
D. An EISA slot
Answer: A

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NO.25 .Which action is required to safely replace non hot-pluggable components in servers with redundant
hot-pluggable power supplies?
A. Depress server On/Off switch from front panel.
B. Ensure DC LED indicator on the hot-pluggable power supply is inactive.
C. Remove AC power cord from the primary hot-pluggable power supply.
D. Remove AC power cords from all hot-pluggable power supplies.
Answer: D

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NO.26 .While running Diagnostics on your ProLiant server, you receive an error code: 6092. What should you
do?
A. Replace network card.
B. Replace disk controller.
C. Connect external loopback cable.
D. Place network card in a different slot.
Answer: C

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NO.27 .Which diagnostic mode tests individual components of a server?
A. Intermediate
B. Automatic
C. QuickCheck
D. Prompted
Answer: D

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NO.28 .What is the advantage of having an online spare as part of a SMART array configuration?
A. The drive can be used for temporary data storage until another drive fails.
B. The array will not lose its fault tolerance in case of a single drive failure.
C. You always have a spare drive available to physically put in place of a failed drive without having to
order a spare drive.
D. You can load balance across the array.
Answer: B

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NO.29 .What problem is indicated if the server powers up with no video and an audible POST error?
A. memory module not seated
B. monitor signal cable not connected
C. intermittent memory parity errors
D. monitor in power saver mode
Answer: A

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NO.30 .A defective processor is replaced in a Compaq server. The 212 "System Processor Failed" POST
error will not go away. What action can be performed?
A. Erase NVRAM to clear the Health Log.
B. Run Diagnostics on memory.
C. Replace hot-pluggable power supply.
D. Replace Memory Expansion Board.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-D01
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which information do you need from the customer to use the HP StorageWorks Sizing Tool to size a
data protection solution?
A. total storage capacity, number of servers, and file system type
B. total storage usage, data read:write ratio, and file cache hit rate
C. server workload ratio, transactions per second (tps), and file system type
D. total backup time, percentage of data change, and storage network (SAN) performance
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which information is crucial when preparing a site for new HP servers and storage?
A. BTU factor, power consumption, airflow
B. BTU factor, airflow, operating system properties
C. BTU factor, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance
D. airflow, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance, operating system properties
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must verify the supported connectivity between a server platform and an HP StorageWorks EVA
storage array. You must also determine if additional software or tools are needed to implement the
solution. Which resource provides this information?
A. HP Enterprise Configurator
B. HP SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP StorageWorks Administrator Guide
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a high-availability solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. number of available I/O slots
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current system user list and installed software patches
D. plans to migrate this system to another operating system
Answer: BD

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NO.6 You must verify that the existing data center power and cooling can support 15 units of fully populated,
c7000 enclosures. Which resource provides information about heat-generated air flow and power
requirements for the enclosures?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. BladeSystem Sizer
C. StorageWorks Sizer
D. SalesBUILDER for Windows
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is using an HP 9000 rp7420 Server and would like to increase system performance.
Which option is most cost effective?
A. in-box upgrade
B. scale-in upgrade
C. scale-up upgrade
D. box swap upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. current system power utilization
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current user workload and transactions per second
D. current system user list and installed software patches
Answer: BC

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NO.9 You are evaluating whether a customer's infrastructure can benefit from consolidating on an HP
BladeSystem c-Class with Insight Control Environment management. Which customer requirements
would indicate this? (Select three.)
A. high-volume deployment
B. power and cooling limitations
C. single server point management
D. support for dynamic RAID memory protection
E. quick redeployment through rip-and-replace technology
Answer: ABE

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NO.10 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running on an HP OpenVMS cluster. They are using medical applications on those systems.
Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the management of the current infrastructure?
A. Insight Power Management
B. Rapid Deployment Solution
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: C

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NO.11 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of several hundred c-Class
enclosures? (Select two.)
A. electrical workload
B. shipments to the facility
C. helpdesk response time
D. amount of heat generated
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which resource can be used to plan and configure HP servers and HP storage in a data center?
A. StorageWorks Sizer
B. SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP 9000 and HP Integrity Ordering Guide
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a business continuity solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer is interested in implementing the proactive performance capturing and optimization
reporting functionality within the HP Insight Control Environment (ICE) suite. Which operating systems are
supported? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Solaris
D. Windows
E. OpenVMS
Answer: AD

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx8640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.16 During a site survey, you must identify the scalability of an existing rx6600 server. What is the
maximum number of processor modules supported for the HP Integrity rx6600 Server?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.17 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of 35 units of rx8640
server complexes? (Select three.)
A. electrical workload
B. helpdesk response time
C. amount of heat generated
D. equipment loading in the facility
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Which tool contains detailed technical information about retired HP products?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. HP Product Bulletin
C. HP Product Information Tool
D. HP Performance Quick Reference Tool
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx7640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running HP-UX 11i v3 and HP Serviceguard. They are using an Oracle 10g and SAP solution on
those systems. Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the current infrastructure?
A. Virtual Server Environment
B. Insight Power Management
C. Rapid Deployment Solution
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J14
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks ASE 2008 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the impact of dequarantining a virtual disk if not enough of its drives are available to maintain
the selected RAID level?
A. The virtual disk RAID level is reduced.
B. The virtual disk stays in quarantine until disks are added.
C. The virtual disk goes critical and the sparing routine is called.
D. The virtual disk goes offline and its data cannot be recovered.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When does the data become available to the application during the MSA2000 snapshot rollback
process?
A. immediately
B. after a restart of the application
C. when the rollback process has completed
D. while the rollback process completes in the background
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (fc or i) controller at any
one time?
A. 3 monitor and 1 manage
B. 3 monitor and 2 manage
C. 5 monitor and 1 manage
D. 5 monitor and 2 manage
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are attempting to restore a saved configuration file. You have selected Manage > Utilities >
Configuration Utilities > Restore Config File inside the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management
Utility. What do you select next?
A. Next
B. Master Controller
C. IP Address option
D. previously saved configuration file
Answer: C

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NO.5 In which Windows mode are the MPIO drivers implemented?
A. real mode
B. user mode
C. kernel mode
D. secured mode
Answer: C

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NO.6 You want an HP product that allows you to present 4.8TB to an OpenVMS system and take up only 2U
of rack space. Which HP StorageWorks product should you use?
A. HP StorageWorks MSA60
B. HP StorageWorks MSA70
C. HP StorageWorks MSA500
D. HP StorageWorks MSA2000fc
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains pre-allocated reserve space for snapshot data?
A. snap pool
B. rollback pool
C. target volume
D. master volume
Answer: A

HP   HP0-J14   HP0-J14 examen

NO.8 Which multi-path drivers are included in the MPIO driver package? (Select three.)
A. bus driver
B. port filter driver
C. Secure Path driver
D. system state driver
E. disk driver replacement
F. matrix storage manager driver
Answer: ABE

HP examen   certification HP0-J14   HP0-J14

NO.9 Which resource can you use to identify supported switch and HBA firmware releases in an MSA2012fc
storage environment?
A. MSA2012fc website
B. MSA2012fc Streams
C. MSA2012fc User Guide
D. MSA2012fc Quick Specs
E. MSA2012fc Best Practices
Answer: B

certification HP   certification HP0-J14   HP0-J14   certification HP0-J14   certification HP0-J14

NO.10 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: ACE

HP   HP0-J14   HP0-J14   HP0-J14

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Code d'Examen: HP0-D02
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing HP Insight Dynamics-VSE Soluions)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer uses HP Performance Management Pack (PMP) in a ProLiant environment and
wants to use the information for historical views in an HP Insight Dynamics - VSE solution. Which
statement is true about this environment?
A.PMP data cannot be imported into Capacity Advisor.
B.Data must be imported by PMP and exported by Capacity Advisor.
C.Export and import of PMP data is performed by one Capacity Advisor command.
D.An OpenView Performance Agent must be installed to export and import PMP data.
Correct:C

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NO.2 What information does HP Capacity Advisor gather from target systems?
A.CPU speed, amount of memory installed, and disk capacity
B.CPU utilization, memory utilization, disk capacity, and network utilization
C.CPU utilization, memory utilization, and number of possible virtual machines
D.CPU utilization, memory utilization, disk I/O, network I/O, and power utilization
Correct:D

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.3 What is required to perform online logical server moves with HP Insight Dynamics - VSE?
A.SAN environment
B.separate licenses
C.dedicated network
D.identical hardware
Correct:A

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.4 Which data center challenges does HP Virtual Connect address? (Select three.)
A.too many cables
B.too many switches
C.too many protocols
D.too many administrators
E.too much heat generation
F.too much power consumption
Correct:A B D

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.5 When using HP Rapid Deployment Pack with HP Insight Dynamics - VSE, which network
configuration should you recommend to the customer?
A.Create a separate physical network.
B.Merge all servers in one LAN subnet.
C.Create a VLAN for server deployment.
D.Use Virtual Connect Ethernet Modules for communication.
Correct:A

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.6 Which statement is true about a Central Management Server (CMS) where HP Insight Dynamics -
VSE will be installed?
A.A Windows CMS can manage all currently shipping HP platforms.
B.An HP-UX CMS can manage HP ProLiant ML/DL servers and HP BladeSystems.
C.A Windows CMS can manage HP ProLiant ML/DL servers, HP BladeSystems, and HP Integrity servers.
D.An HP-UX CMS can manage HP ProLiant ML/DL servers, HP BladeSystems, and HP Integrity servers.
Correct:C

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. While you are performing a proof-of-concept for your customer, the
system administrator asks you about the 5-star rating and the definition of room for growth. What
is the minimum headroom available for the single workload allocated to the system in bay 5
shown in the exhibit?
A.25%
B.50%
C.75%
D.90%
Correct:C

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.8 You are consulting about an HP Insight Dynamics - VSE solution for a customer, who
emphasizes power and cooling regulation in the data center. How is the power estimation formula
calibrated in Insight Dynamics - VSE? (Select two.)
A.user-specified values
B.HP Power and Rack Manager definitions
C.HP Insight Power Manager utilization traces
D.user-defined HP Systems Insight Manager thresholds
E.power utilization templates that can be downloaded from the HP website
Correct:A C

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.9 How is HP Virtual Server Environment (VSE) on Integrity Servers licensed?
A.per core
B.per server
C.per workload
D.per migration
E.per virtualized system
Correct:A

HP   HP0-D02 examen   HP0-D02

NO.10 A customer is interested in an HP Insight Dynamics - VSE solution. You are presenting the HP
solution, including all service options. Which HP Systems Insight Manager plug-in provides a
comprehensive "phone home to HP" capability?
A.Open Service Event Manager
B.Web-Based Enterprise Services
C.HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition
D.HP Service Essentials Remote Support Pack
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M21
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Universal Configuration Management Database Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 What information do patterns store?
A. CIs and relationships to be created, Discovery Protocols, Parameters and scripts
B. Destination list and Protocols and triggered CIs
C. Only credentials
D. Scripts and UCMDB connection
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-M21   certification HP0-M21   certification HP0-M21

NO.2 What is a script used for?
A. It is a part of the pattern and contains the connection code to connect to infrastructure resources and
request information
B. It is used for the TQL for triggered list
C. It is used for the TQL command lines
D. It is the code used for finding the result in the uCMDB
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.3 How many sets of credential per protocol are allowed?
A. Only one
B. Many
C. At least one
D. Maximum two
Answer: B

HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.4 Which layer(s) does Discovery support or extract information from?
A. Layers 2 through 7
B. Only layers 2 and 7
C. Layer 7 only (application)
D. Layers 2,5 and 7
Answer: A

HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen   HP0-M21

NO.5 What types of information can be derived using Discovery?
A. Config files, reading records from another system, looking at network data
B. Config files ,OS and DB tables C. All network device
D. All In-house and network software and hardware
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three components comprise a discovery task?
A. User, server and pattern
B. Server, DB and probe
C. Pattern, script and credentials
D. DB, pattern and protocol
Answer: B

HP examen   certification HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.7 What is a topology map?
A. a manager used to create and organize views
B. a graphical representation of a subset of the CMDB
C. the editing pane where views are created
D. a list representation of a subset of the CMDB
Answer: B

HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen   HP0-M21 examen

NO.8 Where would you edit the attribute value of a CI?
A. on the Related CIs page of IT Universe Manager
B. on the Topology Map page of IT Universe Manager
C. on the Properties page of IT Universe Manager
D. on the Properties page of View Manager
Answer: C

HP   HP0-M21 examen   HP0-M21

NO.9 What would you see in a Topology map if you set the "Number of Hops" to 4?
A. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or fewer links
B. CIs that are directly related to the selected CI
C. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or more links
D. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by three or fewer links
Answer: A

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NO.10 You want to add a new CI to the view in the Topology View. Which are the possible actions you may
take?
A. Insert CI and Insert View
B. Insert View and Insert Related CI
C. Insert CI and Insert Related CI D. Insert View only
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the "View Sublayer" context menu used for?
A. to include the CI Type instances and instances of all subtypes in the view
B. to attach new related CI
C. to view child CIs without navigating away from the present layer
D. to view parent CIs without navigating away from the present layer
Answer: C

HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.12 Which is not part of a package?
A. Class definitions (XML)
B. TQL and Views
C. Reports, Correlations and Enrichments
D. Protocols and credentials
Answer: D

HP   HP0-M21   certification HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen

NO.13 What is the "Refresh View" menu item used for?
A. to update the information in the IT Universe Manager
B. to update the information in the view explorer
C. to rebuild the view
D. to refresh the browser
Answer: B

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NO.14 When are view parameters created?
A. when the TQL is created
B. when the view is created
C. when the TQL is calculated
D. when the view is calculated
Answer: B

HP   certification HP0-M21   certification HP0-M21

NO.15 What protocol(s) are used to discover J2EE environments?
A. JMX
B. JDBC and WMI
C. SNMP or WMI
D. JMX and ICMP
Answer: A

certification HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.16 What is the correct statement with regard to "Filter Related in DB"?
A. Displays the related CIs from the current view
B. Displays the related CIs from the entire CMDB
C. Displays specific types of related CIs from the current view
D. Displays specific types of related CIs from the entire CMDB
Answer: D

HP examen   certification HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.17 What pattern is used for discovering IP's?
A. ICMP
B. WMI
C. SNMP
D. JMX
Answer: A

certification HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21

NO.18 What is the domain scope?
A. A set of IP Addresses that contains credential information
B. All the IPs that the probe can access to
C. The Probe's IP
D. The User's network Domain
Answer: A

HP   HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen   HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen

NO.19 How do you navigate between layers?
A. by double-clicking on the Related in View in Related CIs tab
B. by double-clicking on the Navigation button in the menu bar
C. by selecting a layout from the Layout menu in the menu bar
D. by double-clicking on the down arrow and the green up arrow
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-M21   HP0-M21   HP0-M21 examen

NO.20 You navigate to the topology map and notice that there are no labels to the CIs. What might be the
reason for this?
A. The Map overview option is selected.
B. The Hide All Relationship option is selected.
C. The Hide All Node Labels option is selected.
D. The Hide All Relationship Labels option is selected.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

HP   HP0-Y16 examen   HP0-Y16

NO.3 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

certification HP   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.4 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

HP   certification HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

HP examen   HP0-Y16 examen   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16 examen

NO.7 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

HP   certification HP0-Y16   certification HP0-Y16   certification HP0-Y16

NO.9 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16 examen

NO.10 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

HP examen   HP0-Y16 examen   certification HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.11 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

HP   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16 examen   HP0-Y16 examen

NO.12 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

certification HP   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16 examen

NO.13 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

HP   certification HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.14 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

HP   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16 examen

NO.15 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

HP examen   HP0-Y16 examen   certification HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.16 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

HP   certification HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.17 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   certification HP0-Y16

NO.18 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

HP   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16   HP0-Y16

NO.19 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.21 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.24 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.25 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.27 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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NO.29 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.30 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-D04
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Which HP support service includes 6-hour Call-to-Repair by default?
A.Proactive 24
B.Support Plus 24
C.Critical Services
D.Proactive Support Plus 24
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which HP Power and Cooling service helps create an energy-efficient infrastructure?
A.Critical Facilities Consulting
B.Trusted Infrastructure
C.Data Center Management
D.Flexible Computing Services
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which HP initiatives help the customer to deliver faster innovation and improved time to
market? (Select two.)
A.Application Modernization
B.Packaged and Custom Applications
C.SOA Enablement
D.SAP Deployments
E.Line of Business Service
Answer:C E

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NO.4 Your customer's environment consists of a 300GB Oracle database on a ProLiant DL580
server running Windows Server 2003, connected to an EVA4400 storage solution with an
MSL4048 tape library as backup device. You are asked to design a solution using HP Data
Protector that will eliminate database outages currently required for backups. Which licenses
are necessary to implement this design? (Select two.)
A.Direct Backup
B.Advanced Backup-to-Disk
C.Zero Downtime Backup EVA
D.Business Copy EVA
E.Instant Recovery
Answer:C D

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NO.5 A customer is currently using a SAN data-protection solution. It has 45 heterogeneous
servers, three HP StorageWorks EVA8000 series storage solutions, and an MSL6000 series
SAN tape library. Data backup occurs only once daily after operating hours because of the
limited backup window. Which HP StorageWorks products should you propose to enhance
and optimize their off-site data protection strategy? (Select two.)
A.LTO tape drives
B.Virtual Library System
C.ESL E-Series tape library
D.XP series storage system
Answer:A D

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NO.6 How much of an increase over standard cooling capacity does the HP Modular Cooling
System provide?
A.1.5x
B.2x
C.3x
D.4x
Answer:C

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NO.7 Your customer is looking for a simplified way to handle hardware and software issues
across worldwide IT departments. Which hardware support services should you offer?
A.Global Support Resources
B.Mission Critical and Proactive Services
C.Global Call Management
D.HP Mission Critical Partnership
Answer:C

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NO.8 A customer wants to maximize the use of its data center rack space. Which server solution
should you recommend?
A.rack-optimized HP ProLiant DL servers
B.expansion-optimized HP ProLiant ML servers
C.integration-optimized HP Integrity servers
D.high-density-optimized HP BladeSystem servers
Answer:D

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NO.9 Your customer wants to use their standard servers and storage systems for a massively
scalable Information Management solution. Which solution addresses this requirement?
A.Oracle RAC 10g
B.NeoView Enterprise Data Warehouse
C.PolyServe Software for Microsoft SQL Server
D.SAP Sideways
Answer:B

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NO.10 An enterprise customer is undertaking a new initiative involving floating-point calculations.
The customer needs a solution that enables them to break these operations into smaller tasks
and re-integrated later. Which type of technology would be a good fit for this customer?
A.hard partitions
B.grid computing
C.active/standby clustering
D.workload management
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: HP2-F01
Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Which feature of HP ProLiant 300 and 500 series servers can help your customer be
proactive in maintaining their HP ProLiant servers?
A. automatic server recovery
B. rapid deployment solution
C. pre-failure warranty
D. power management pack
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum unplanned downtime for an industry-standard server designed to
99.99% availability?
A. 15 minutes
B. 8 hours
C. 53 minutes
D. 87 hours
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer needs a high-bandwidth storage area network (SAN) solution providing
simultaneous communication between the servers and storage disk arrays.
Which type of Fibre Channel SAN topology will meet this requirement?
A. switched fabric
B. private fabric
C. public loop
D. arbitrated loop
Answer: A

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NO.4 What option is needed in order to stack multiple MSL tape libraries together?
A. universal pass-through mechanism
B. second Fabric switch
C. cluster
D. SCSI splitter
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two tape technologies provide read compatibility for two previous generations?
(Select two.)
A. AIT
B. SDLT
C. SLR
D. LTO
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Your customer has a farm of 28 file servers using ProLiant ML350, all with exclusively
internal RAID storage. They are adding five more file servers with the same
configuration every six months.
Which statement best describes their current solution?
A. best utilized and easiest managed server-storage solution
B. best utilization of IT support resources that makes the administrators most productive
C. consolidated data center that is efficient in both floor space utilization and disk
utilization
D. unconsolidated serversthat are inefficient in both floor space utilization and disk
utilization
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which library system family introduces a fast, highly available disk-based backup
solution?
A. ESL
B. EML
C. MSL
D. VLS
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer would like to have the functionality of "Rip and Replace" for all their x86
Microsoft Windows and Red Hat Linux server environments. Which solution fits their
need?
A. HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant DL500 series
C. HPProLiant DL100 series
D. HP Integrity Superdome
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which HP ProLiant server supports RAID Memory providing higher availability?
A. BL685c
B. DL380
C. ML370
D. DL580
Answer: D

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NO.10 Your customer wants to connect an MSA1500cs storage array to a ProLiant server
running SuSE Linux operating system. Which two references can be used to verify the
solution is supported? (Select two.)
A. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
B. HP Integrity Product Information Tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP Product Bulletin
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which HP storage solution supports IBM mainframe ESCON connectivity?
A. XP
B. MSA
C. EVA
D. VLS
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which virtualization technology maximizes client connectivity uptime and security in the
Proliant server platform?
A. HP Auto Port Aggregation using 1000SX network card
B. HP Clustered NIC in each server
C. Adapter teaming in the server with VLAN functionality
D. Virtual Cluster for NIC in the server
Answer: C

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NO.13 A critical database server stores data on a MSA 1500cs. Which RAID level on the disk
array is the most appropriate to achieve highest availability and performance?
A. RAID 4
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two components are used to manage the HP-UX 11i Virtual Machine (VM) host
system resources? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Machine Manager
B. Virtual Machine Management Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. System Management Homepage
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 The customer just purchased ten ProLiant DL380 G5 servers located at a remote location.
What can they use to gain graphical console access to the servers and power them on or
off from a central location?
A. ProLiant Multifunction Network Interface Card
B. integrated Lights-Out 2 Standard Blade Edition
C. ProLiant Lights-Out 100i
D. integrated Lights-Out 2 Advanced Pack
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which management software is able to discover and monitor virtual machines on both
Proliant and Integrity server platforms?
A. HP Virtual Insight Manager
B. HP System Tools Manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. HP Systems Consolidated Manager
Answer: C

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NO.17 Your customer is currently running 28 Linux x86 NFS file servers with direct attached
storage. They are adding five servers every six months.
What solution will help resolve their potential problems?
A. EFS WAN Accelerator
B. Virtual Library System
C. MSA 1510i System
D. EFS Clustered Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which software tool can be used to help a customer virtualize a server environment?
A. HP VirtualComputer Center
B. HP Process Virtualization
C. HP Virtual Node Cluster
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: D

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NO.19 In an HP OpenView Data Protector solution, which component contains the database and
executes the core services?
A. cell manager
B. console server
C. media server
D. disk agent
Answer: A

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NO.20 An enterprise customer needs the ability to manage their HP Integrity rx8620 using more
than one console. Which feature will meet this need?
A. Remote Insight LightsOut Edition II (RILOE II)
B. Transfer of Control (TOC)
C. Management Processor LAN (iLO MP)
D. Serial Port Redirection (SPR)
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A22
Nom d'Examen: HP (NonStop Systems and Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 Which utility displays system resource use in block mode and bar graph form?
A.PEEK
B.ViewSys
C.ViewPoint
D.SEEVIEW
Answer:B

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NO.2 What is a key attribute of online transaction processing?
A.Distributed processing does not work well with online transaction processing applications.
B.The application keeps the database current at all times by recording transactions as they occur.
C.Application complexity and high performance must be compromised to attain data integrity and data
security.
D.The system may be unable to back out those transactions that transform the database from one
consistent state to another.
Answer:B

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NO.3 What is the function of Group Numbers when they are assigned to hardware components?
A.They determine the order in which racks are added to the system.
B.They enable disk drives to be switched from group to group easily.
C.They correspond to the processor numbers housed within the group.
D.They uniquely identify the IOAM and p-switch components of the system.
Answer:D

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NO.4 In an NS-series server, what is the maximum number of Fibre Channel Disk Modules (FCDM) that can
be daisy-chained together?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which OSM application is used to change the IP address of the p-switch in an NS-series system?
A.Event Viewer
B.Low-Level Link
C.Service Application
D.Notification Director
Answer:B

HP   certification HP0-A22   certification HP0-A22

NO.6 What do you configure to enable automatic dial-out of problem event messages to a service provider?
A.$0
B.GMCSC
C.OSM Notification Director
D.OSM Service Connection
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which adapter in NS-series systems provides connectivity to the M8xxx disk drives?
A.FESA
B.G4SA
C.FCSA
D.SNDA
Answer:C

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NO.8 A ServerNet Link connects a ServerNet node to which other component in a ServerNet SAN?
A.a TorusNet node
B.a ServerNet router
C.a different ServerNet group
D.a Fibre Channel disk module
Answer:B

HP   HP0-A22 examen   HP0-A22 examen

NO.9 What is the default TCP/IP port number used by the OSM Service Connection when connecting to the
NS-series system?
A.7500
B.7501
C.9990
D.9991
Answer:C

HP   HP0-A22   HP0-A22   HP0-A22 examen

NO.10 In a NonStop NS16000 series server, what is one of the functions of the LSU?
A.disk mirroring
B.memory reintegration
C.system load balancing
D.correcting memory errors
Answer:B

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