Citrix meilleur examen 1Y0-A22, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A22

Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix XenApp 6.5 Advanced Administration )

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Replicating the data store to a second database server
C.Moving the data store from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to validate the data store in a XenApp farm.
The administrator should use the DSCHECK command with the /CLEAN parameter after _______.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.restoring the data store
B.backing up the data store
C.restarting the XenApp server
D.restarting the IMA Service on the data collector
Answer: B

Citrix   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22 examen

NO.3 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes
on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate
this process but does NOT have a third party tool available.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied
successfully? (Choose two.)
A.Prohibit logons and notify users.
B.Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C.Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D.Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
Answer: AB

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen

NO.4 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in an enterprise environment plans to use Access Gateway to
secure ICA connections from the external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ using ICA
proxy mode.
Which two locations for these components would be the most secure? (Choose two.)
A.Place the XML broker in the DMZ.
B.Place the Web Interface in the DMZ.
C.Place the XML broker in the internal network.
D.Place the Web Interface in the internal network.
Answer: CD

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.5 Scenario: A XenApp Administrator in a small environment plans to use Access Gateway to secure
ICA connections from an external network. The Access Gateway is in the DMZ in ICA proxy mode.
The environment requires minimum configuration to secure connections from the Web Interface
server to the XML broker server.
Where should the administrator place the Web Interface server and XML broker?
A.On one server and place the server in the DMZ
B.On separate servers and place the servers in the DMZ
C.On one server and place the server in the internal network
D.On separate servers and place the servers in the internal network
Answer: C

Citrix examen   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.6 When should an administrator use the DSCHECK command line utility?
A.To fix errors on server entries in the data store
B.To fix errors related to configuring Proxy Authentication
C.To fix errors in the local host cache on each XenApp 6.5 server
D.To generate a report of logon/logoff activity for a XenApp 6.5 server
Answer: A

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.7 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which action would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from Microsoft
SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Adding an additional zone to the farm
B.Mirroring the SQL database to a second SQL server
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: B

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NO.8 After repairing a XenApp Web site, an administrator notices that the customized footer text is missing.
Which file must the administrator restore from backup?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

Citrix   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.9 A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers.
Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability
for Web Interface?
A.NOCE
B.DESTIP
C.SOURCEIP
D.COOKIEINSERT
Answer: D

certification Citrix   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.10 Scenario: An administrator in a XenApp farm is in the process of replacing a couple of the failed
XenApp servers in the farm. The administrator has been instructed to execute the DSCHECK
command once the servers have been replaced.
What will be the outcome of executing the DSCHECK command?
A.Recover the local data store
B.Purge corrupt local host cache entries
C.Purge the data store of incorrect entries
D.Display information about servers in the farm
Answer: C

certification Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22

NO.11 Scenario: An administrator migrated the data store of a Citrix XenApp 6.5 server farm from
Microsoft SQL Server Express on XenApp server XAS01 to a separate Microsoft SQL Server 2008
cluster.
The administrator tested the move, noted that the cluster is running well and found no errors.
None of the XenApp 6.5 servers can connect to the new location of the data store.
In this scenario, when should the administrator use the DSCHECK command?
A.After restarting the data collector
B.After using the DSMAINT command
C.After running the QFARM command
D.After using the CHANGE CLIENT command
Answer: B

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NO.12 In order for the Web Interface server to correctly work with the Access Gateway Enterprise Edition
configuration in the attached exhibit,
the administrator must configure the authentication point at __________. (Choose the correct
option to complete the sentence.)
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A.LDAP
B.RADIUS
C.the Web Interface
D.the Access Gateway
Answer: C

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22 examen

NO.13 Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode?
(Choose two.)
A.Windows Cluster services
B.NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C.Windows Load Balancing services
D.NetScaler Access Gateway feature
Answer: BC

Citrix examen   1Y0-A22   certification 1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22

NO.14 Scenario: An administrator used the Server Configuration Tool to install a Microsoft SQL Server
Express data store database automatically as part of a XenApp 6.5 farm installation. The initial
configuration consisted of a single zone and servers in a single physical location.
The administrator added an equal number of servers and users to the farm at a second physical
location over a WAN.
Which new requirement would require the administrator to migrate the data store database from
Microsoft SQL Server Express to Microsoft SQL Server?
A.Implementing database mirroring
B.Adding an additional zone to the farm
C.Moving the database from local storage to SAN storage
D.Adding the configuration logging database to the same SQL server
Answer: A

Citrix   1Y0-A22   1Y0-A22 examen   1Y0-A22 examen   certification 1Y0-A22

NO.15 Scenario: An administrator has configured a XenApp Web site and customized the footer text of
the site to reflect the required customer-specific hyperlinks. The administrator now plans to back
up the site.
Which file must the administrator back up?
A.Default.ica
B.Web.config
C.Repair.SFO
D.WebInterface.conf
E.LoginMainFormFoot.inc
Answer: D

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Cisco meilleur examen 640-822, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 640-822

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1)

Questions et réponses: 350 Q&As

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NO.1 An elementary school has a computer in every classroom. One entire wing of the school connects to a
centrally located hub. The teachers have reported a slowdown in the past few weeks to the network
administrator. The network administrator has analyzed the network and documented a steep increase in
utilization as the teachers use a new network-based classroom management application. Which solution
will improve the performance the most?
A.Replace the hub with a switch.
B.Install a repeater in the affected wing.
C.Reboot the router that connects to the hub.
D.Install a router and install another hub in the affected wing.
E.Ensure all devices in the affected wing have a default gateway.
Answer:A

certification Cisco   640-822   certification 640-822   640-822

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in
the ARP request?
A.192.168.0.1
B.172.16.0.50
C.00-17-94-61-18-b0
D.00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E.ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F.255.255.255.255
Answer:E

Cisco   640-822   640-822 examen   640-822

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?
A.2
B.3
C.6
D.9
E.15
Answer:E

Cisco   640-822   640-822 examen   640-822   640-822

NO.4 Refer to the exhibits labeled A through E. All devices are to be connected over Ethernet. Which three
device-to-device configurations are likely to require the use of a crossover connection? (Choose three.)
A.exhibit A
B.exhibit B
C.exhibit C
D.exhibit D
E.exhibit E
Answer:ADE

Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822 examen

NO.5 Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D.
What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A.The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to
host D.B.The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.C.The switch will
flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D.The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the
frame to host D.
Answer:A

certification Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822   certification 640-822

NO.6 Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B.In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C.The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the
CSMA/CD access method.
D.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E.After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired,
all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F.After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each
other prior to transmitting data.
Answer:BE

Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.7 From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer:A

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NO.8 Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What
will the switch do with the frame?
A.drop the frame
B.send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.return the frame to Host B
D.send an ARP request for Host C
E.send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Answer:B

certification Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.9 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A.A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B.A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C.A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D.A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E.A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F.A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer:ADE

Cisco examen   640-822   640-822   640-822 examen

NO.10 A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical
IP network does this host reside?
A.192.168.0.0/26
B.192.168.0.0/28
C.192.168.43.0/28
D.192.168.43.64/28
E.192.168.43.112/28
F.192.168.43.128/28
Answer:F

Cisco   certification 640-822   certification 640-822   certification 640-822   640-822

NO.11 An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned
on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two.)
A.Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.
B.The PC has received a DHCP address.
C.Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC.D.If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100
Mb/s.
E.The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.
F.The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.
Answer:AE

Cisco   640-822   certification 640-822   640-822 examen

NO.12 What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network
address is being used?
A.2
B.6
C.8
D.14
E.16
Answer:D

Cisco   certification 640-822   640-822 examen   640-822 examen   640-822

NO.13 Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC
address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A.The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B.The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C.The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D.The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E.The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer:AD

Cisco   640-822   certification 640-822

NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a
leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the
minimum requirements for this installation?
A.a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B.a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C.a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D.a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E.a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer:C

certification Cisco   640-822   certification 640-822   640-822   640-822   certification 640-822

NO.15 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC
and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch.
Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the problem?
A.Speed is set to 100Mb/s.
B.Input flow control is off.
C.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.D.The port is administratively down.
E.The counters have never been cleared.
Answer:A

Cisco examen   640-822   certification 640-822   certification 640-822

NO.16 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote
management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit.
However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done
to fix this problem?
A.Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B.Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C.Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D.Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E.Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Answer:C

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NO.17 What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A.172.19.20.0
B.172.19.20.15
C.172.19.20.16
D.172.19.20.20
E.172.19.20.32
Answer:C

Cisco examen   640-822   640-822 examen   640-822

NO.18 Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A.application
B.session
C.transport
D.network
E.data link
F.physical
Answer:D

Cisco examen   640-822   640-822 examen

NO.19 Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A.There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media
before transmitting.
E.The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answer:ABE

Cisco   640-822   640-822

NO.20 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator replaced the NIC in a desktop PC with a new NIC. The NIC in the PC configuration is set
to "100 Mb Half." Now the PC has intermittent connectivity and loss of communication so the
administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of
the problem?
A.Input flow control is off.
B.Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
C.The switch is set to full-duplex.
D.The port is administratively down.
E.Fast Ethernet is incompatible with a megabit NIC.
F.The counters were not cleared after the hardware was replaced.
Answer:C

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Guide de formation plus récente de Cisco 642-611

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Code d'Examen: 642-611

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIP Implementing Cisco MPLS Exam (MPLS))

Questions et réponses: 509 Q&As

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NO.1 Lab.
Correct:

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.2 Which kind of link does a Layer 3 overlay VPN use?
A.emulated point-to-point
B.dedicated point-to-point
C.point-to-multipoint
D.permanent virtual circuits
Correct:A

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.3 In the diagram, Internet access is through a dedicated subinterface implementation. Which of
its routing tables will PE-2 use to forward packets from Site-2 to Site-1?
A.the global routing table
B.the VPNv4 routing table
C.the VRF A routing table
D.the VRF A FIB
E.the PE-IG routing table
Correct:C

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.4 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice6

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.5 What is a benefit of CEF switching?
A.CEF supports IP source prefix-based switching using the FIB.
B.CEF uses less memory than fast switching uses.
C.CEF is less CPU intensive than fast switching is.
D.CEF provides Netflow statistics with minimum CPU overhead.
E.CEF allows multiple data planes to share a common control plane.
Correct:C

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.6 Refer to the exhibit. A diagram of a router connected to an MPLS-enabled ATM switch via an
LC-ATM MPLS interface, and the partial configuration for the MPLS-enabled ATM switch and
router are shown. Which statement describes what is incorrect about the configuration?
A.The control VPI/VCI numbers do not match.
B.The ATM VPI range of 2-3 is invalid.
C.CEF has not been enabled on the router ATM 3/0.2 subinterface.
D.VC-merge has not been enabled on the switch ATM 0/1/2 interface.
E.The router has not been configured to specifically use LDP.
Correct:A

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.7 In the diagram, the Internet is accessed through a dedicated Internet VPN implementation.
Which routing table will PE-IG use to forward packets from the Internet to Site-2?
A.Global routing table
B.VPNv4 routing table
C.VRF A routing table
D.VRF Internet routing table
Correct:D

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.8 Which three statements are correct regarding Layer 2 overlay VPNs and peer-to-peer VPNs?
(Choose three.)
A.Peer-to-peer VPNs require the establishment of virtual circuits to connect the different customer sites
together.
B.Peer-to-peer VPNs require the service provider to participate in the customer routing, accepting
customer routes, transporting them across the service provider backbone, and finally propagating them to
other customer sites.
C.With peer-to-peer VPNs, the service provider is responsible for transport of Layer 2 frames between
customer sites, and the customer takes responsibility for all higher layers.
D.The implementation of Layer 2 overlay VPNs is the traditional switched-WAN model, implemented with
technologies like X.25, Frame Relay or ATM.
E.With Layer 2 overlay VPNs, the service provider is not aware of customer routing and has no
information about customer routes.
F.It is simple to implement Layer 2 overlay VPNs because the Customer Edge (CE) router just needs a
connection to the Service Provider's Provider Edge (PE) router.
Correct:B D E

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.9 When nonadjacent LDP neighbors are used for implementing an MPLS traffic engineering
solution, how are the nonadjacent LDP neighbors discovered?
A.using multicast CR-LSP (constraint-based LSP)
B.using unicast CR-LSP (constraint-based LSP)
C.using multicast LDP hello messages
D.using unicast LDP hello messages
E.using multihop MP-IBGP
F.using multihop MP-EBGP
Correct:D

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show outputs, which condition could be preventing the P1
router from establishing TDP adjacency with its neighbor over the s0/0.211 and s0/0.212
subinterfaces?
A.The s0/0.211 and s0/0.212 subinterfaces line protocol are in the down state.
B.The P1 router cannot establish a TCP session with its neighbors.
C.The P1 router is missing the mpls label protocol LDP command.
D.The show mpls tdp neighbor command needs to be used to view the TDP neighbor status.
Correct:B

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.11 What best describes the following configuration example of allowas-in? router bgp 100
address-family ipv4 vrf CustomerAneighbor 195.12.4.5 remote-as 123 neighbor 195.12.4.5
activateneighbor 195.12.4.5 allowas-in 2
A.permits incoming BGP updates defined by access-list 2
B.permits incoming BGP updates defined by class-map 2
C.permit incoming BGP updates defined by route-map 2
D.permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 100 in the AS path
E.permits incoming BGP updates with no more than two occurrences of AS 123 in the AS path
Correct:D

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.12 Look at the picture.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice9---->Yellow Choice3

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.13 Refer to the exhibit. How many different VRFs are required to support the given connectivity
requirements? Sites CE1A and CE1B require connectivity to each other. Sites CE2A and CE2B
require connectivity to each other. Site CE1C requires connectivity to sites CE1A, CE1B, CE3A,
and CE3B. Site CE2C requires connectivity to sites CE2A, CE2B, CE3A, and CE3B. Sites CE3A and
CE3B require connectivity to each other and to CE1C and CE2C.
A.3 VRFs
B.4 VRFs
C.5 VRFs
D.6 VRFs
E.8 VRFs
Correct:C

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.14 With MPLS VPNs, if the CE-PE routing protocol is BGP, which statement below is true?
A.The different customer sites must use different autonomous system numbers.
B.Manual route redistribution between EBGP and MP-BGP is required.
C.The SOO extended BGP community can be used to prevent routing loops.
D.A BGP virtual sham-link is required between the customer site's CE routers to ensure optimal routing
between the customer sites.
E.The customer's autonomous system number must match the MPLS VPN service provider's
autonomous system number.
Correct:C

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.15 What are three characteristics of overlay VPNs? (Choose three.)
A.Service provider infrastructure appears as point-to-point links to the customer routers.
B.Routing protocols run directly between the customer routers.
C.Implementing optimum routing between customer sites requires a partial mesh of virtual circuits.
D.Service provider PE routers use route filtering to isolate between different customers.
E.Service provider does not participate in customer routing.
Correct:A B E

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.16 What is the difference in implementation between a managed CE services MPLS VPN and a
central services MPLS VPN?
A.RD assignment
B.selective routes export
C.selective routes import
D.MP-BGP route redistribution filtering
E.CE-PE routing process
F.none
Correct:B

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.17 Refer to the diagram. What problem can be caused by the second P router summarizing the
loopback address of the egress PE router?
A.The first P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
B.The second P router will be faced with a VPN label which it does not understand.
C.The egress PE router will not be able to establish a label switch path (LSP) to the ingress PE router.
D.A label switch path (LSP) will be established from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router, an
event that is not desirable.
E.The ingress PE router will not be able to receive the VPN label from the egress PE router via MP-IBGP.
Correct:B

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.18 Refer to the exhibit. A diagram of a router connected to an MPLS-enabled ATM switch via an
LC-ATM MPLS interface, and a partial configuration for the MPLS-enabled ATM switch and router
are shown. Which statement describes what is incorrect about the configuration shown?
A.CEF has not been enabled on the router.
B.The VPI range of 2-3 is invalid.
C.The control VPI/VCI has not been set to 0/32 on the router.
D.VC-merge has not been enabled on the ATM switch interface.
E.The router has not been configured to specifically use LDP.
Correct:A

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.19 What is a major drawback of using traditional IP routing over an ATM network when connecting
multiple sites?
A.Each ATM switch in the path has to perform Layer 3 routing lookup.
B.ATM virtual circuits have to be established between the different sites.
C.There is high ATM management overhead between the ATM switch and the router at each site.
D.Each ATM switch has to be manually configured to participate in Layer 3 routing.
E.There is high PNNI overhead.
Correct:B

certification Cisco   642-611   certification 642-611   642-611 examen

NO.20 BGP is used as the CE-PE routing protocol in an MPLS VPN. The customer routes are
successfully propagated from the CE router to the ingress PE router, but they are not showing up
on the egress PE router. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A.There is a BGP-to-MPBGP redistribution error on the ingress PE router.
B.There is a MPBGP-to-BGP redistribution error on the egress PE router.
C.One of the P routers is performing route summarization, breaking the path between the ingress and the
egress PE routers into two LSPs.
D.RTs attached to the CE routes exported by the ingress router are not matched by at least one of the
import RTs on the egress PE router.
E.A route reflector is used to propagate the routes from the ingress PE router to the egress PE router,
thus breaking the LSP.
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: 350-018

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIE Security written)

Questions et réponses: 686 Q&As

350-018 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/350-018.html

NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three of the following statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Framework network.
B. The exhibit shows an example of a NAC Appliance network.
C. The network utilizes in-band admission control.
D. The network utilizes out-of-band admission control.
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy
F. Cisco Trust Agent is used to verify end-user PC compliance with the security policy.
Answer: BDE

Cisco   350-018   certification 350-018   350-018 examen   certification 350-018

NO.2 What is the net effect of using ICMP type 4 messages to attack RFC 1122-compliant hosts?
A. Hosts will perform a soft TCP reset and restart the connection.
B. Hosts will perform a hard TCP reset and tear down the connection.
C. Hosts will reduce the rate at which they inject traffic into the network.
D. Hosts will redirect packets to the IP address indicated in the ICMP type 4 message.
E. Hosts will retransmit the last frame sent prior to receiving the ICMP type 4 message.
Answer: C

certification Cisco   350-018   350-018   certification 350-018   certification 350-018

NO.3 Which of these best represents a typical attack that takes advantage of RFC 792, ICMP type 3
messages?
A. blind connection-reset
B. large packet echo request
C. packet fragmentation offset
D. broadcast-based echo request
E. excessive bandwidth consumption
Answer: A

Cisco   350-018   350-018   350-018   350-018 examen   350-018

NO.4 Which two of these Cisco Catalyst security features offer the best ways to prevent ARP cache poisoning?
(Choose two.)
A. Dynamic ARP Inspection
B. port security
C. MAC address notification
D. DHCP snooping
E. PortFast
F. 802.1x authentication
Answer: AD

Cisco   350-018   350-018 examen

NO.5 Which two of these statements about SMTP and ESMTP are the most correct? (Choose two.)
A. Open mail relays are often used for spamming.
B. ESMTP does not provide more security features than SMTP.
C. SMTP provides authenticated e-mail sending.
D. Worms often spread via SMTP.
Answer: AD

Cisco examen   350-018 examen   350-018   350-018 examen

NO.6 When using Cisco Easy VPN Remote (hardware client deployment) in the client-mode setup, all of the
following statements are correct except which one?
A. Perform split tunneling on the Cisco Easy VPN Remote device.
B. Initiate a connection from a network behind the Cisco Easy VPN Server to the network behind the
Cisco Easy VPN Remote client.
C. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to allow an administrator or user to manually initiate a connection.
D. Set the Cisco Easy VPN Remote to automatically connect to the Cisco Easy VPN Server.
Answer: B

Cisco examen   350-018   certification 350-018   350-018 examen

NO.7 After the client opens the command channel (port 21) to the FTP server and requests passive mode,
what will be the next step?
A. The FTP server sends back an ACK to the client.
B. The FTP server allocates a port to use for the data channel and transmits that port number to the client.
C. The FTP server opens the data channel to the client using the port number indicated by the client.
D. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 20.
E. The FTP client opens the data channel to the FTP server on port 21.
Answer: B

Cisco   350-018   certification 350-018   350-018 examen

NO.8 Which of these statements best describes the advantage of using Cisco Secure Desktop, which is part
of the Cisco ASA VPN solution?
A. Cisco Secure Desktop creates a separate computing environment that is deleted when you finish,
ensuring that no confidential data is left on the shared or public computer.
B. Cisco Secure Desktop is used to protect access to your registry and system files when browsing to
SSL VPN protected pages.
C. Cisco Secure Desktop ensures that an SSL protected password cannot be exploited by a man-
in-the-middle attack using a spoofed certificate
D. Cisco Secure Desktop hardens the operating system of the machines you are using at the time it is
launched.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibit.
Switch SW2 has just been added to Fa0/23 on SW1. After a few seconds, interface Fa0/23 on SW1 is
placed in the error-disabled state. SW2 is removed from port 0/23 and inserted into SW1 port Fa0/22 with
the same result. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The spanning-tree PortFast feature has been configured on SW1.
B. BPDU filtering has been enabled either globally or on the interfaces of SW1.
C. The BPDU guard feature has been enabled on the Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1.
D. The Fast Ethernet interfaces of SW1 are unable to autonegotiate speed and duplex with SW2.
E. PAgP is unable to correctly negotiate VLAN trunk characteristics on the link between SWI and SW2.
Answer: C

Cisco   certification 350-018   certification 350-018   350-018

NO.10 For a router to obtain a certificate from a CA, what is the first step of the certificate enrollment process?
A. The router generates a certificate request and forwards it to the CA.
B. The router generates an RSA key pair.
C. The router sends its public key to the CA.
D. The CA sends its public key to the router.
E. The CA verifies the identity of the router.
F. The CA generates a certificate request and forwards it to the router.
Answer: B

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NO.11 In ISO 27001 ISMS, which three of these certification process phases are required to collect
information for ISO 27001? (Choose three.)
A. discover
B. certification audit
C. post-audit
D. observation
E. pre-audit
F. major compliance
Answer: BCE

Cisco   certification 350-018   350-018 examen   350-018   350-018 examen

NO.12 In the example shown, Host A has attempted a DCOM attack using Metasploit from Host A to Host
A. Which three statements best describe how event logs and IPS alerts can be used in conjunction with
each other to determine if the attack was successful? (Choose three.)
B. Cisco Security MARS will collect the syslog and the IPS alerts based on time.
C. The IPS event will suggest that an attack may have occurred because a signature was triggered.
D. IPS and Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will use the Unified Threat Management protocol to
determine that both devices saw the attack
E. Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance will see the attack in both directions and will be able to
determine if an attack was successful.
F. The syslog event will indicate that an attack is likely because a TCP SYN and an ACK followed the
attempted attack.
Answer: ABE

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NO.13 Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliance application layer protocol inspection is
implemented using which of these?
A. Protocol Header Definition File (PHDF)
B. Cisco Modular Policy Framework
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. NetFlow version 9
E. Traffic Classification Definition File (TCDF)
Answer: B

Cisco   350-018   certification 350-018   350-018 examen

NO.14 Which method is used by Cisco Security Agent to get user state information from the operating
system?
A. secure SSL using HTTPS session
B. application (Layer 7)-based (Cisco proprietary) encryption
C. NetBIOS socket on TCP port 137-139 and UDP port 137-139
D. Win32 application binary interface (ABI)
E. Win32 application programming interface (API)
Answer: E

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NO.15 How do TCP SYN attacks take advantage of TCP to prevent new connections from being established
to a host under attack?
A. sending multiple FIN segments, forcing TCP connection release
B. filling up a host listen queue by failing to ACK partially opened TCP connections
C. taking advantage of the host transmit backoff algorithm by sending jam signals to the host
D. incrementing the ISN of each segment by a random number, causing constant TCP retransmissions
E. sending TCP RST segments in response to connection SYN+ACK segments, forcing SYN
retransmissions
Answer: B

Cisco   350-018   350-018 examen   350-018

NO.16 Referring to the partial debug output shown in the exhibit, which of these values is contained inside the
brackets [4] in line 1?
A. RADIUS identifier field value
B. RADIUS attribute type value
C. RADIUS VSA number
D. RADIUS VSA length
E. vendor ID
Answer: B

Cisco   350-018   350-018   350-018

NO.17 Which one of the following is not a valid RADIUS packet type.?
A. access-reject
B. access-response
C. access-challenge
D. access-reply
E. access-accept
Answer: B

certification Cisco   350-018   350-018

NO.18 Which two of these commands are required to implement a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Firewall
Services Module (FWSM) in a Catalyst 6500 running Cisco IOS? (Choose two.)
A. firewall multiple-vlan-interfaces
B. firewall module vlan-group
C. module secure-traffic
D. firewall vlan-group <vlan-x>
E. firewall module secure-traffic
Answer: BD

Cisco   certification 350-018   350-018 examen

NO.19 ASDM on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance platform is executed as which of the following?
A. an ActiveX application or a JavaScript application
B. a JavaScript application and a PHP application
C. a fully compiled .Net Framework application
D. a fully operational Visual Basic application
E. a Java applet or a standalone application using the Java Runtime Environment
Answer: E

Cisco   350-018 examen   certification 350-018

NO.20 When a failover takes place on an adaptive security appliance configured for failover, all active
connections are dropped and clients must reestablish their connections, unless the adaptive security
appliance is configured in which two of the following ways? (Choose two.)
A. active/stand by failover
B. active/active failover
C. active/active failover and a state failover link has been configured
D. active/standby failover and a state failover link has been configured
E. to use a serial cable as the failover link
F. LAN-based failover
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: 642-481

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Cisco Rich Media Communications(CRMC))

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 User A and User B are in a video call using Cisco VT Advantage. The call was set up via the local
Cisco CallManager. User A and User B determine that they need to add User C to the call. User A
attempts to conference in User C, but there are no more SCCP ports available on the MCU.
What will be the outcome of the conference attempt?
A. The conference will proceed with audio and video using available H.323 ports on the MCU.
B. The conference will proceed, but only audio will be available.
C. The conference will fail, but the video call between User A and User B will proceed.
D. The conference will fail; User A and User B will be disconnected.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Acme Wakeboards Company is planning to install an IP videoconferencing system. One vendor
needs to participate in weekly videoconferences using a H.320 video endpoint at a rate of less than or
equal to 512 kbps. All other conference participants are internal staff.
Which product should the company install to allow the remote vendor to join into the weekly conference?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco IPVC 3521 BRI Videoconferencing Gateway
C. Cisco IPVC 3526 PRI Videoconferencing Gateway
D. Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System
E. Cisco IPVC 3544 Chassis
Answer: B

certification Cisco   642-481   642-481   642-481

NO.3 Bob's Bicycles recently implemented a H.323 videoconferencing solution, and wishes to conduct
videoconferences with the main supplier over the extranet using the existing four-digit numbering plan at
each company. Due to overlapping dial plans, the called digits must be manipulated to allow the video
calls to be completed. Which solution can support this?
A. H.323 proxy
B. gatekeeper
C. directory gatekeeper
D. IP-to-IP gateway
Answer: D

Cisco   642-481   642-481 examen   642-481 examen

NO.4 A company would like to provide customized voice prompts for users who are dialing into
videoconferences. Which component should be used to support customized voice prompts?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. the IVR built into the gateway
C. the IVR built into the video gateway
D. Cisco peripheral gateway
E. the built-in IVR of the MCU
Answer: E

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NO.5 The Acme Roller Skates Company has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCUE. At present there are two
conferences occurring as follows:
A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3:
three conference participants
What will occur when the third conference is attempted?
A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for three
conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide the
number of required services.
Answer: A

Cisco examen   642-481 examen   642-481   642-481 examen

NO.6 How is a H.323 MCU defined in Cisco CallManager so that H.323 endpoints can communicate with
endpoints that are controlled by Cisco CallManager?
A. as a H.320 gateway
B. as a H.323 gateway
C. as a gatekeeper-controlled H.225 trunk
D. as a gatekeeper-controlled intercluster trunk
Answer: C

Cisco   642-481   642-481

NO.7 Which call would most likely require an audio transcoder?
A. 128-kbps ISDN call to MCU
B. 128-kbps H.323 call to MCU
C. 128-kbps ISDN call to H.323 endpoint
D. 384-kbps ISDN call to H.323 endpoint
E. 384-kbps H.323 call to MCU
Answer: A

Cisco   642-481   642-481   642-481

NO.8 The Acme Snowboards Company is planning to install an IP videoconferencing system. Up to 10
vendors need to participate in weekly videoconferences using H.320 video endpoints at 128 kbps. All
other conference participants will be internal staff using the IP videoconferencing system.
Which two products should the company install to allow the remote vendors to join into the weekly
conference? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco IPVC 3521 BRI Videoconferencing Gateway
C. Cisco IPVC 3526 PRI Videoconferencing Gateway
D. Cisco IPVC 3544 Chassis
Answer: AC

certification Cisco   certification 642-481   642-481   certification 642-481

NO.9 A customer has deployed a Cisco IPVC 3511 MCUE. Which three features will be available? (Choose
three.)
A. connection to H.320 systems using up to four BRIs
B. connection to H.320 systems using up to two PRIs
C. audio transcoding
D. port configuration for both SCCP and H.323
E. conferencing up to 15 voice-activated sessions
F. conferencing up to 15 continuous presence sessions
Answer: CEF

Cisco   642-481 examen   642-481   642-481   642-481 examen   642-481

NO.10 A customer wants to simultaneously support H.323 conferences with an aggregate of 20 active
participants, and SCCP videoconferences with an aggregate of 30 active participants. All video sessions
will use voice-activated switching. Which device should be deployed to support this?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511 Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E
C. Cisco IPVC 3540-03A with EMP
D. Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module
E. Cisco IPVC 3540-10A with EMP
Answer: E

Cisco   642-481   certification 642-481   642-481

NO.11 Which two statements accurately describe the EMP? (Choose two.)
A. It increases the number of voice-activated sessions that are supported.
B. It increases the number of continuous presence layouts.
C. It increases the number of audio-only conference sessions that are supported.
D. It allows the MCU to perform rate matching.
E. It is required for simultaneous support for H.323 and SCCP continuous presence sessions.
Answer: BE

Cisco   642-481   642-481

NO.12 The Acme Roller Skates Company has its corporate HQ in Seattle, with remote sales offices in Denver,
Chicago, New York, and Atlanta. The company is in the process of transitioning the H.320
videoconferencing system to an IP videoconferencing system.
The company has installed an MCU at the corporate HQ, but the remote offices still have H.320 terminal
endpoints. A Cisco IPVC 3526 PRI Videoconferencing Gateway has been installed to allow the remote
offices to dial into videoconferences. The telephony provider has given the company one phone number
for the PRI, which can route to all the channels on the PRI.
Which two methods are best for routing calls from the gateway to the MCU for conferences? (Choose
two.)
A. DID
B. IVR
C. TCS4
D. Default Extension
Answer: BC

Cisco examen   642-481   642-481 examen   642-481   certification 642-481

NO.13 The Acme Roller Skates Company has its corporate HQ in Seattle, with remote sales offices in Denver,
Chicago, New York, and Atlanta. The company is in the process of transitioning the H.320
videoconferencing system to an IP videoconferencing system.
The company has installed an MCU at the corporate HQ, but the remote offices still have H.320 terminal
endpoints. A Cisco IPVC 3526 PRI Videoconferencing Gateway has been installed to allow the remote
offices to dial into videoconferences. The telephony provider has given the company a block of 100 phone
numbers for the PRI, which can route to all the channels on the PRI.
Which method will be best for routing calls from the gateway to the MCU or other endpoints?
A. DID
B. IVR
C. TCS4
D. Default Extension
Answer: A

certification Cisco   certification 642-481   642-481   642-481

NO.14 The Acme Anvils Company is a large enterprise with many office sites. The company is planning to
add IP videoconferencing to the existing IP telephony network. It has been determined that an MCU will
be placed in each site. External participants in videoconferences will dial in using DID to reach the
conference MCUs. Internal participants will dial the proper extension numbers for conferences.
What does Cisco recommend for the videoconferencing gateway placement and the
IP-videoconferencing dial plan?
A. a single videoconferencing gateway with a single zone prefix for all MCUs
B. a single videoconferencing gateway, with the MCUs at each site having a separate zone prefix that is
independent of the area code
C. a videoconferencing gateway in every site, with an MCU zone prefix for each site that is independent of
the area code
D. a videoconferencing gateway in every site, and the MCU zone prefixes matching the local area code
E. a videoconferencing gateway in every site, and all the MCUs placed in a single zone prefix
Answer: D

certification Cisco   642-481   642-481

NO.15 Bob's Bicycles currently has a room-based videoconferencing system that is connected to the PSTN
via three BRIs. The company is converting to H.323 and would like to continue using the BRIs to make
video calls to the suppliers. Which device should the company deploy?
A. Cisco IPVC 3511
B. Cisco IPVC 3521
C. Cisco IPVC 3526
D. Cisco IPVC 3540
Answer: B

Cisco   certification 642-481   certification 642-481

NO.16 The Acme Jet Boats Company is installing an IP videoconferencing system in the corporate office.
Users need the ability to dial out to external H.320 videoconferences. The company is installing a
videoconferencing gateway, but is concerned that outside callers may be able to dial the gateway and
then hairpin back out to the PSTN.
What does Cisco recommend to ensure that this cannot happen?
A. Set up the gatekeeper to allow only outgoing calls that originate internally.
B. Configure the Cisco CallManager so that the gateway terminates hairpinned calls.
C. Configure the gateway to allow only outgoing calls that originate internally.
D. Use the "#" digit in the service prefix so that hairpinned call attempts will fail.
Answer: D

Cisco   642-481   certification 642-481

NO.17 A company has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each
conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. What
should this company purchase?
A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade
Answer: C

Cisco   642-481 examen   certification 642-481   certification 642-481

NO.18 A startup company is designing a converged network, which will include video telephony and H.323
videoconferencing. Which two are key elements of the videoconferencing dial-plan design? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco CallManager trunks
B. zone prefixes
C. gateway service prefixes
D. gatekeeper service prefixes
Answer: BC

Cisco   642-481   642-481 examen   642-481 examen   642-481   certification 642-481

NO.19 Which device allows a H.323 video endpoint to establish a conference with a videoconferencing system
that is connected to the PSTN?
A. H.225 gateway
B. H.320 gateway
C. H.323 proxy
D. HD gateway
Answer: B

certification Cisco   certification 642-481   certification 642-481   642-481

NO.20 Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan?
(Choose three.)
A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways
Answer: ACD

Cisco examen   642-481   certification 642-481

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Cisco meilleur examen 642-241, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 642-241

Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Unified Contact Center Enterprise Design (UCCED))

Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

642-241 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/642-241.html

NO.1 Which two configuration tasks are necessary in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for
the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? (Choose two.)
A.configure agent IP phone, supervisor IP phone, and CTI route points
B.configure agent ID, supervisor ID, and system administrator password
C.configure agent, supervisor, and CTI user accounts
D.configure scripts for call routing
E.configure call routing to agents
F.configure device associations of agent phones and CTI devices with the PG user
Correct:A F

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.2 Which of the following Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal call-flow models does not require a
Cisco IOS-based VoiceXML Gateway?
A.Standalone Self-Service
B.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control
C.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Collect
D.Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal Call Control with Queue and Self-Service
E.Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Network Interface Controller-based Call Control with Cisco
Unified Customer Voice Portal Queue, Collect, and Self-Service
Correct:B

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.3 Which two of the following are not parts of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager device
pool configuration? (Choose two.)
A.primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager group
B.SRST reference
C.region
D.location
E.Media Resource Group List
Correct:A D

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.4 Which protocol does the Cisco Unified ICM use to interface with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A.AXL
B.SIP
C.H.323
D.JTAPI
E.SOAP
Correct:D

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.5 Which of these functions is not a function of the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
solution?
A.reporting with WebView
B.CTI desktop functionality for agent state control
C.call-routing functionality based on real-time conditions
D.instructing queue points to play specific messages to callers
E.accepting media streams and acting as a conference bridge
Correct:E

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.6 Which type of user access is not controlled by Microsoft Windows Active Directory in Cisco
Unified Contact Center Enterprise?
A.agent login
B.supervisor login
C.WebView user login
D.service account login
Correct:A

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.7 When the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system transfers a call to the Cisco Unified IP
IVR to queue the call using a translation route to VRU, what label is sent to the routing client?
A.Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Busy label
B.Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI port
C.Cisco Unified Communications Manager MTP
D.Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI route point
Correct:D

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.8 In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise design, the customer requires that agents are able
to make personal outbound calls from their Cisco IP phone, but they do not want to allow the
agent to use their ACD line for these calls. How would this requirement be addressed given the
following: Agent ACD Line: 1000 (DN) Allow PSTN calling search space: Allows outbound calls to
PSTN. Block PSTN calling search space: Blocks outbound calls to PSTN.
A.add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
B.add second line on IP phone with DN 1000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space
C.add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in different partition, allow PSTN calling search space
D.add second line on IP phone with DN 2000, but in same partition, block PSTN calling search space
Correct:C

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.9 Which of the following configurations are supported with the Cisco Unified Contact Center
Enterprise solution?
A.Cisco Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
B.Cisco Agent Desktop without Communications Manager Attendant Console
C.Cisco CTI Object Server Agent Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
D.Cisco Siebel Driver/CRM Desktop with Communications Manager Attendant Console
Correct:B

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

NO.10 When sizing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster in a Cisco Unified Contact
Center Enterprise solution with the Cisco Unified IP IVR, which factor must be taken into account?
A.the number of dialed numbers configured in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Call Router
B.the maximum number of concurrent calls in progress in the Cisco Unified IP IVR, serviced by CTI ports
C.the number of Run VRU script nodes executed by the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing
script once the call is terminated in the Cisco Unified IP IVR
D.the total number of CTI route points, CTI ports, and BHCAs associated with the Cisco Unified IP IVR
E.the maximum number of concurrent agents in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system
Correct:D

Cisco   642-241   642-241   642-241   642-241

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IBM meilleur examen 00M-244, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 00M-244

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Optimization Sales Mastery Test v1)

Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

00M-244 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/00M-244.html

NO.1 Which type of problem is CPLEX NOT well equipped to solve?
A. Nonlinear Program
B. Linear Program
C. Quadratic Program
D. Integer Program
Answer: C

IBM examen   00M-244   00M-244   00M-244   certification 00M-244   certification 00M-244

NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a key element in qualifying an IBM ILOG Optimization sales opportunity?
A. Can the System be Optimized?
B. Problem can be formulated in nested if , then , else statements.
C. Can you understand the relationships between choices and outcomes?
D. Is data readily available?
Answer: A

certification IBM   00M-244   00M-244   00M-244 examen

NO.3 Which statement does NOT apply to Optimization?
A. It is the same as business simulation.
B. It helps companies make choices to reach a target while observing limits and data.
C. It improves resource utilization (e.g., Capital, equipments, facilities).
D. It helps companies provide better customer service.
Answer: A

IBM examen   00M-244   00M-244 examen   00M-244   00M-244   00M-244

NO.4 Which of the following applications do NOT benefit from Optimization.?
A. Portfolio management
B. Scheduling advertisements on TV channels
C. Credit Application processing
D. Employee management
Answer: D

certification IBM   00M-244 examen   00M-244 examen

NO.5 Which of the following features are NOT provided by ODME?
A. Data Visualization and editing.
B. Scenario Management and Collaborative planning.
C. Out of the box Client/Server Architecture.
D. Web-enabled client/Thin Client.
Answer: D

IBM   00M-244   00M-244   00M-244 examen

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