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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-100
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.2 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.4 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.8 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a relationship in UML 2.0.?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.10 What statements are true of the <<it>>endency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: B,F

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NO.11 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? ose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? ose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 What are some of the important semantics of packages? ose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.17 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.20 What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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NO.5 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

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NO.7 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

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NO.9 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

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NO.12 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

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NO.15 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

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NO.16 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

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NO.17 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

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NO.18 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

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NO.20 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

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NO.3 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

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NO.4 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

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NO.10 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

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NO.11 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

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NO.13 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.14 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

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NO.15 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.16 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411

NO.18 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.20 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

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NO.3 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

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NO.4 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

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NO.5 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.6 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

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NO.7 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

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NO.10 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

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NO.11 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

OMG examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.12 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

OMG examen   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.15 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

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NO.16 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

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NO.17 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

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NO.18 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

certification OMG   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411

NO.19 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: UM0-200
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional intermediate exam)
Questions et réponses: 154 Q&As

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NO.1 To what does an internal structure of a class refer?
A. the inheritance structure of that class
B. the set of nested classifiers of that class
C. the set of structural features of that class
D. class and associations owned by that class
E. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
Answer: E

OMG   UM0-200   UM0-200

NO.2 Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?
A. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the port
B. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that port
C. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected via that port
D. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the
port is defined
Answer: C

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NO.3 What best describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. This is an illegal diagram.
B. The OrderEntity component is part of the internals of the Invoicer component.
C. The Invoicer has a complex connector that connects the GenerateInvoice interface with the Order
interface.
D. The Invoicer has a complex port that provides the interface GenerateInvoice and requires the interface
Order.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?
A. dependencies
B. associations and generalizations
C. dependencies and generalizations
D. dependencies, associations, and generalizations
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is NOT true about a roles and role bindings?
A. A role binding is an association.
B. The same object may play roles in multiple collaborations.
C. A role binding maps a connectable element to a role in a collaboration occurrence.
D. The same connectable element may be bound to multiple roles in a single collaboration occurrence.
E. A role typed by an interface specifies a set of features required by a participant in a collaboration.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An encapsulated classifier is characterized by which fact?
A. has an encapsulation shell
B. can own one or more ports
C. hides information from other classifiers
D. acts as a package and can own one or more classifiers
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-200 examen   UM0-200 examen

NO.7 What best describes the distinction between a delegation connector and an assembly connector?
A. A delegation connector can be used to model the internals of a component, while an assembly
connector cannot.
B. Assembly connectors provide white box views of components, while delegation connectors provide
black box views.
C. An assembly connector connects two components while a delegation connector connects the internal
contract of a component with its external parts.
D. An assembly connector connects the required interface or required port of one component with the
provided interface or provided port of another component, while a delegation connector connects the
external contract of a component with its internal parts.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is NOT a purpose of a port owned by a classifier?
A. serves as an end point for connectors
B. specifies an association to the classifier
C. hides the internals of that classifier from other classifiers
D. provides a distinct point of interaction between the classifier and its environment
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-200 examen   UM0-200

NO.9 What does the composite structure exhibit show?
A. The diagram is not valid.
B. The two F interfaces must come from different packages.
C. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 can be distinguished.
D. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 will always result in the same
behavior.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What interface restrictions does a port have?
A. multiple required interfaces or multiple provided interfaces
B. multiple provided interfaces and multiple required interfaces
C. equal numbers of provided interfaces and required interfaces
D. exactly one provided interface or exactly one required interface
E. exactly one required interface and exactly one provided interface
Answer: B

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NO.11 How can the internals of a component be presented?
A. using a complex component connector
B. component provides port or a component requires port
C. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires port
D. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component box
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which list contains only connectable elements?
A. port and connector end
B. behavior, port and property
C. connector end, port and part
D. property, port, and parameter
E. behavior, connector end, and port
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-200   UM0-200   UM0-200

NO.13 Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?
A. The components must have complex ports.
B. One component must be a subtype of the other.
C. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.
D. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol
extends downward rather than leftward?
A. There is no significance.
B. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
C. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
D. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
E. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
F. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Assume component A provides an interface P and requires an interface R. In order for a component
B to be substituted for component A, what must be true?
A. Components must be related to each other via a dependency.
B. The interface that A requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that B provides.
C. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
D. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A requires, and
the interface that B provides must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is an invocation action on a port used for?
A. sending a message to that port
B. receiving a message on that port
C. creating a link and attach it to that port
D. relaying the invocation via links connected to that port
E. invoking the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-200 examen   UM0-200   UM0-200   UM0-200

NO.17 What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.
B. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.
C. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.
D. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator
component.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Refer to the exhibit. How many interfaces does the CustomerService component make visible to its
clients?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: D

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NO.19 What does the composite structure notation in the exhibit mean?
A. Class C has internal structure.
B. Object c1 is a kind of component.
C. Port p is connected to an object called F.
D. Port p realizes the features defined by interface F.
E. Port p requires the features defined by interface F.
Answer: E

OMG   certification UM0-200   UM0-200

NO.20 What statements are true about a composite structure? (Choose two)
A. Collaborations are structured classifiers.
B. A structured classifier is also an encapsulated classifier.
C. Structured classifiers cannot contain instances of structured classifiers.
D. Destroying an instance of a structured classifier normally destroys instances of its parts.
E. The behavior of a structured classifier must be completely defined through the collaboration of owned
or referenced instances.
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-200
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Intermediate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 154 Q&As

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NO.1 Which relationships would make the model in the exhibit ill-formed.?
A. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via an association.
B. SpecialOrder is a subtype of Order.
C. Order is a subtype of SpecialOrder.
D. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via a dependency.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. control flows
B. unidirectional associations
C. object flows
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. dependencies
Answer: C

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NO.3 When either a message m or a message q is to be sent-but not both-what kind of operator for combined
fragment would be used?
A. opt
B. par
C. alt
D. break
E. var
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. State machine transitions can be triggered.
B. The classifier cannot be an association class.
C. The classifier cannot be abstract.
D. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
E. Behaviors can be executed.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?
A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. undefined behavior
C. object of the specified class being created
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised
Answer: B

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NO.6 Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true about Mneg?
A. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
B. <!p, ?q, ?p, !q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D. <!p, !q, ?p, ?q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does reaching the terminating pseudostate mean?
A. The final state has been reached.
B. The enclosing region is completed.
C. The "do" activity of the current state has completed.
D. A completion transition has occurred.
E. The context object of the state machine is terminated.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Triggers on two different transitions originating from two states at different levels of the same state are
simultaneously enabled (as shown in the exhibit). What does this mean?
A. The state machine is not well-formed.
B. The less deeply nested transition takes precedence over those with more depth.
C. More deeply nested transitions take precedence over those with less depth.
D. Both transitions are taken in arbitrary order.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What characteristic does a behavior port possess?
A. owns the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
B. defines the behavior that the owning classifier must realize
C. has its own behavior that is distinct from the behavior of the classifier
D. relays any incoming messages directly to the behavior of the owning object
E. must have a protocol state machine
F. is a kind of behavior
Answer: D

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NO.10 When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. name of the invoking activity
B. class name of the invoking object
C. invoking object
D. attribute values and links for the invoking object
E. attribute values for the invoking object
Answer: B

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NO.11 For what does an interaction operator define semantics?
A. a particular interaction fragment
B. a particular interaction
C. a particular message
D. a particular combined fragment
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?
A. classifier must be abstract
B. classifier cannot be abstract
C. classifier cannot be an association class
D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]
E. type of the output pin is the classifier.
F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]
Answer: A,F

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NO.13 What does a loop node consist of?
A. clauses
B. partitions
C. parameters
D. bodyPart nodes
E. behaviors
F. guards
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is NOT a correct assertion?
A. Stereotypes extending a model element can be retracted at any time.
B. Un-applying a profile from a model deletes all related stereotypes extending the model.
C. Stereotypes extending a model element are immutable.
D. A model element can be extended by several stereotypes at the same time.
Answer: C

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NO.15 What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?
A. initial nodes
B. activity final nodes
C. merges
D. forks
E. joins
F. decisions
G. flow final nodes
Answer: G

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NO.16 What indicates an artifact instance in UML notation? (Choose two)
A. class box with two smaller rectangles on its left side
B. <<artifact>> keyword
C. memo box
D. single sheet icon with a folded-over corner
E. syntactically well-formed file name
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 What is a combined fragment?
A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram
B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline
C. the combination of decomposed lifelines
D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the difference between a stereotype and a metaclass?
A. A metaclass is a limited kind of a stereotype that can only be used in conjunction with one of the
stereotypes it limits.
B. Stereotypes can be specialized, but metaclasses cannot be specialized.
C. Metaclasses can be specialized, but stereotypes cannot be specialized.
D. A stereotype is a specialization of a metaclass that can be used by itself, whereas a metaclass must be
used with a stereotype.
E. A stereotype is a limited kind of a metaclass that can be only be used in conjunction with one of the
metaclasses it extends.
Answer: E

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NO.19 What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. activity
B. control node
C. action
D. object node
E. state
F. behavior
Answer: D

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NO.20 What statement is true if a port delegates to multiple ports on subordinate components?
A. multiple delegation is not allowed
B. subordinate ports must collectively offer the delegated functionality of the delegating port
C. subordinate ports must be type compatible with the delegating port
D. at execution time, signals will be delivered from the subordinate ports to the delegating port
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: UM0-300

Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional advanded exam)

Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

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NO.2 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. AcceptCallAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: B

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NO.3 By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose
three)
A. import
B. inheritance
C. ownership
D. dependency
E. power types
F. association end subsets
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
D. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object?
(Choose two)
A. No new classifiers are supplied.
B. A new classifier is an abstract class.
C. The old and new classifiers are identical.
D. All classifiers are removed from the object.
E. A new classifier already classifies the object.
F. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
Answer: BD

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NO.6 Which stereotype is used on a dashed arrow joining an instance value to a constructor?
A. <<new>>
B. <<make>>
C. <<create>>
D. <<construct>>
E. <<initialize>>
Answer: C

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NO.7 An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE

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NO.8 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no
exception parameters declared?
A. ignored
B. handled by a default handler
C. appended to an exception log
D. sent to the "ExceptionManager" object
E. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
Answer: E

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NO.10 What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
A. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
D. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
E. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
Answer: D

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NO.11 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. objects continue to exist
C. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.12 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component
from his company's development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces
of the BoosterMotor component's specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose
two)
A. failure mode use cases
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component's isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
Answer: AC

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NO.13 What characteristics of components best enable them to be used to represent diverse and
"large-scale" aspects of information processing environments?
A. black-box semantics
B. ports, parts, and interfaces
C. duality of association ends and attributes
D. ownership of potentially large numbers of model elements
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the correct interpretation for the multiplicities in the exhibit?
A. each Company has one Job, where each Job has one employee
B. each Job is for one employer and one employee, each Company has any number of employees and
each Person has any number of employers
C. each Person has at most one Job for any number of Company objects and each Company has at most
one Job for any number of Person objects
D. each Job has any number of employers and any number of employees, each Company has any
number of employees, and each Person has any number of employers
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D

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NO.16 What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a particular aspect of a collaboration
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
D. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.17 What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. send a request to a port
B. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
C. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
D. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which action does NOT require classifiers as static inputs?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. CreateObjectAction
C. ReclassifyObjectAction
D. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
E. ReadIsClassifiedObjectAction
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which action can continue to be enabled after it executes?
A. ReplyAction
B. ReadExtentAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. BroadcastSignalAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: C

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NO.20 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. none
Answer: B

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